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Question 1:

A nurse is preparing to gavage feed a preterm infant who is receiving IV antibiotics.

The infant expels a bloody stool.

What nursing action should the nurse implement?

Explanation

Institute contact precautions.This is because the infant may havenecrotizing enterocolitis (NEC), which is the most common cause of bloody stool in preterm infants.

NEC is a serious condition that involves inflammation and necrosis of the intestinal wall and can lead to perforation, sepsis, and death.NEC is also a potential source of infection for other infants in the NICU, so contact precautions are necessary to prevent cross-contamination.

Choice A is wrong because obtaining a rectal temperature is not indicated for an infant with bloody stool.Rectal temperature can cause irritation and bleeding of the rectal mucosa and can also increase the risk of perforation if there is intestinal necrosis.

Choice C is wrong because decreasing the amount of the feeding is not enough to manage an infant with bloody stool.

The infant may need to have the feeding stopped completely and receive parenteral nutrition until the bowel heals.Decreasing the feeding may also compromise the infant’s growth and development.

Choice D is wrong because assessing for abdominal distention is not a nursing action but a nursing assessment.

Abdominal distention is a common sign of feeding intolerance and NEC, but it is not specific or sensitive enough to diagnose the condition.Other signs and symptoms of NEC include bile-stained or bloody gastric residuals, emesis, diarrhea, temperature instability, apnea, bradycardia, hypotension, and lethargy.


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Question 2:

A nurse is caring for a client who delivered a post-term infant vaginally with shoulder dystocia.

Which of the following findings should alert the nurse to possible injury in the infant?

Explanation

Absent Moro reflex on the affected side indicates a possible injury to the brachial plexus, which is the nerve network that controls the movements and sensations of the shoulder, arm, hand and fingers.Shoulder dystocia can cause brachial plexus injuries when the baby’s shoulder gets stuck behind the mother’s pubic bone during delivery.

Choice B is wrong because flaccid paralysis of both lower extremities is not a common complication of shoulder dystocia.

It could be a sign of spinal cord injury or other neurological disorders.

Choice C is wrong because facial asymmetry when crying or smiling is a sign of facial nerve palsy, which can occur due to compression of the facial nerve during delivery.

It is not specific to shoulder dystocia.

Choice D is wrong because inability to suck or swallow is not a typical sign of shoulder dystocia.

It could be caused by other factors such as prematurity, neurological problems, or congenital anomalies.

Normal ranges for Moro reflex are present at birth and disappear by 4 to 6 months of age.

Normal ranges for facial nerve function are symmetrical movements of both sides of the face.

Normal ranges for sucking and swallowing are coordinated and effective feeding within the first hour after birth.


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Question 3:

A multigravida at 41-weeks gestation is receiving an oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion for induction of labor.

The nurse notes the fetal heart rate (FHR) drops sharply from the baseline for 30 seconds during the peak of a contraction and then returns to the baseline before the end of the contraction.

What action should the nurse implement at this time?

Explanation

Discontinue the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion.This is because the fetal heart rate (FHR) drops sharply from the baseline for 30 seconds during the peak of a contraction and then returns to the baseline before the end of the contraction indicate alate deceleration, which is a sign offetal hypoxia.Oxytocin is a drug that stimulates uterine contractions and can causeuterine hyperstimulation, which reduces blood flow to the placenta and the fetus.By stopping the oxytocin infusion, the nurse can reduce the frequency and intensity of contractions and improve fetal oxygenation.

Choice A is wrong because administering oxygen via facemask may not be enough to reverse fetal hypoxia if oxytocin is still being infused.Choice B is wrong because placing the client on her left side may improve maternal blood flow to the placenta, but it will not reduce the effects of oxytocin on uterine activity.

Choice D is wrong because notifying the healthcare provider is not the most urgent action at this time.The nurse should first discontinue the oxytocin infusion and then notify the healthcare provider.

Normal ranges for FHR are 110 to 160 beats per minute, with a baseline variability of 6 to 25 beats per minute.

Normal ranges for uterine contractions are 2 to 5 contractions in 10 minutes, lasting


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Question 4:

A nurse is caring for a client who had a post-term delivery and notes that the amniotic fluid was stained with meconium.

Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Explanation

This is because the infant born through meconium-stained amniotic fluid (MSAF) may have meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS), which is a condition that causes respiratory distress due to the inhalation of meconium into the lungs.The priority action for the nurse is to evaluate the infant’s breathing and circulation and initiate resuscitation if needed.

Choice A is wrong because suctioning the infant’s mouth and nose with a bulb syringe is not recommended unless the infant has obvious meconium in the airway and is not vigorous.Suctioning may cause bradycardia, hypoxia, or airway trauma.

Choice C is wrong because drying and stimulating the infant with a warm towel is part of the initial steps of resuscitation, but it should be done after assessing the infant’s heart rate and respiratory effort.Drying and stimulating may also increase the risk of meconium aspiration if the infant gasps.

Choice D is wrong because clamping and cutting the umbilical cord is not a priority action for an infant with possible MAS.The cord should be clamped and cut after ensuring that the infant is stable and has adequate oxygenation.


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Question 5:

A nurse is assessing a post-term infant who was born with intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR).

Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Explanation

Loose, peeling skin without lanugo or vernix is a symptom of post-term infants who have intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR).Post-term infants are born after 42 weeks of gestation and may have reduced placental function, resulting in less nutrition and oxygen for the fetus.This can cause them to have low birth weight, decreased subcutaneous fat and muscle mass, and dry skin.

Choice A is wrong because a large head in proportion to body size is not a sign of IUGR.It may indicate a congenital anomaly or a chromosomal disorder.

Choice C is wrong because increased subcutaneous fat and muscle mass are not signs of IUGR.They are signs of normal fetal growth and development.

Choice D is wrong because hypertonia and hyperreflexia are not signs of IUGR.They may indicate a neurological problem or a perinatal asphyxia (lack of oxygen during birth).


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Question 6:

A nurse is planning care for a post-term infant who has hypoglycemia and is receiving IV dextrose solution.

Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Explanation

This is because hypoglycemia in newborns can cause seizures, brain damage, and developmental delays, and frequent monitoring can help detect and correct low blood glucose levels promptly.

Some additional information about the other choices are:

Choice B. Administer glucagon subcutaneously as prescribed.This is wrong because glucagon is used to treat hypoglycemia caused by hyperinsulinism, which is a rare condition in newborns.Most cases of hypoglycemia in term infants are due to transient factors such as delayed feeding, maternal diabetes, or perinatal stress.

Choice C. Discontinue IV dextrose when blood glucose reaches 60 mg/dL.This is wrong because 60 mg/dL is still below the normal range of blood glucose for newborns, which is 70 to 100 mg/dL.Discontinuing IV dextrose too early can cause rebound hypoglycemia and increase the risk of neurologic complications.

Choice D. Feed breast milk or formula every four hours.This is wrong because feeding every four hours may not be enough to maintain adequate blood glucose levels in newborns with hypoglycemia.Infants with hypoglycemia should be fed more frequently, such as every two to three hours, or on demand.Breast milk or formula can also be supplemented with IV dextrose if needed.


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Question 7:

A nurse is evaluating a preterm infant who has patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).

Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the condition is improving?

Explanation

Increased oxygen saturation.This indicates that the condition is improving because it means that the blood is getting more oxygen in the lungs and less blood is shunting from the aorta to the pulmonary artery through the patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).

Choice A is wrong because decreased heart rate can be a sign of hypoxia, acidosis, or heart failure, which are complications of PDA.

Choice B is wrong because increased blood pressure can be a sign of increased systemic vascular resistance, which can result from decreased tissue perfusion due to PDA.

Choice C is wrong because decreased respiratory rate can be a sign of respiratory depression, which can be caused by some medications used to treat PDA, such as indomethacin or ibuprofen.

Normal ranges for oxygen saturation in preterm infants are between 88% and 95%.

Normal ranges for heart rate in preterm infants are between 120 and 160 beats per minute.

Normal ranges for blood pressure in preterm infants depend on gestational age and weight.

Normal ranges for respiratory rate in preterm infants are between 40 and 60 breaths per minute.


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Question 8:

A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of phototherapy for a post-term infant who has hyperbilirubinemia due to ABO incompatibility with the mother’s blood type O negative and infant’s blood type B positive.

Which of the following findings indicates that phototherapy is effective?

Explanation

Phototherapy is a treatment that uses light to break down bilirubin in the blood and make it easier for the liver to eliminate it.

Phototherapy is effective when:

• The bilirubin levels decrease within 24 hours of treatment.

This means that the bilirubin is being cleared faster than it is being produced.

• The urine output and stool frequency increase during treatment.

This means that the bilirubin is being excreted through the kidneys and intestines.

• The skin color and muscle tone improve after treatment.

This means that the bilirubin is no longer causing jaundice or affecting the nervous system.

Statement A is wrong because it only describes one aspect of phototherapy effectiveness.

Statement B is wrong because it only describes another aspect of phototherapy effectiveness.

Statement C is wrong because it only describes the outcome of phototherapy effectiveness.

Statement D is correct because it includes all three aspects of phototherapy effectiveness.


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Question 9:

A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a preterm infant who has anemia of prematurity.

Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

Explanation

Reticulocyte count 2%.

A reticulocyte count measures the percentage of immature red blood cells (RBCs) in the blood.A low reticulocyte count indicates that the bone marrow is not producing enough RBCs, which is a characteristic feature of anemia of prematurity (AOP).A normal reticulocyte count for preterm infants is 3-6%.

Choice A is wrong because hemoglobin 10 g/dL is within the normal range for preterm infants.

Hemoglobin is the protein in RBCs that carries oxygen.

A low hemoglobin level indicates anemia.

Choice B is wrong because hematocrit 30% is within the normal range for preterm infants.

Hematocrit is the percentage of blood volume that is occupied by RBCs.

A low hematocrit level indicates anemia.

Choice D is wrong because platelet count 150,000/mm3 is within the normal range for preterm infants.

Platelets are cell fragments that help with blood clotting.

A low platelet count indicates thrombocytopenia, which is a different condition from anemia.


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Question 10:

A nurse is preparing to administer an exchange transfusion to a newborn who has severe hyperbilirubinemia due to Rh incompatibility.

Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Explanation

Exchange transfusion (ET) is a procedure that involves removing the infant’s blood and replacing it with compatible donor blood to reduce the level of bilirubin and/or antibody-coated red blood cells.It is a high-risk intervention that can cause serious complications such as vascular accidents, cardiovascular compromise, and electrolyte and hematologic derangement.

Therefore, it is essential to obtain informed consent from the parent before performing ET.

Choice B is wrong because checking the newborn’s blood type and crossmatch is not the first action the nurse should take.

Although it is important to ensure compatibility between the donor and recipient blood, it is not as urgent as obtaining informed consent.

Choice C is wrong because inserting two umbilical catheters for blood withdrawal and infusion is not the first action the nurse should take.

Although it is necessary to establish vascular access for ET, it is not as crucial as obtaining informed consent.

Choice D is wrong because monitoring the newborn’s vital signs and oxygen saturation is not the first action the nurse should take.

Although it is vital to assess the newborn’s condition before, during, and after ET, it is not as imperative as obtaining informed consent.

Normal ranges for bilirubin levels vary depending on the gestational age and postnatal age of the newborn.The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) has published nomograms for initiating phototherapy and ET based on these factors.According to the AAP, ET should be considered when the bilirubin level exceeds 25 mg/dL (428 μmol/L) in term infants or 20 mg/dL (342 μmol/L) in preterm infants with risk factors for neurotoxicity.


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Question 11:

A nurse is evaluating a newborn who has hyperbilirubinemia and is receiving phototherapy.

Which of the following outcomes indicates that the therapy is effective?

Explanation

The newborn’s skin color is pink.This indicates that the phototherapy is effective in lowering the serum bilirubin level by transforming it into water-soluble isomers that can be eliminated without liver conjugation.

A pink skin color also means that the newborn is not jaundiced, which is a sign of high bilirubin levels.

Choice B is wrong because clay-colored stools indicate a problem with the liver or bile ducts.Bile is needed to give stools their normal brown color, and if bile is absent or blocked, the stools may become pale or clay-colored.This could be a sign of a serious condition such as biliary atresia, which is a congenital defect that causes bile ducts to be absent or malformed.

Choice C is wrong because a bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL is still high for a newborn and may require further treatment.The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends phototherapy for newborns with bilirubin levels above 15 mg/dL at 25 to 48 hours of age, 18 mg/dL at 49 to 72 hours of age, and 20 mg/dL at more than 72 hours of age.However, these thresholds may vary depending on the gestational age, risk factors, and clinical condition of the newborn.

Choice D is wrong because dark yellow urine may indicate dehydration or concentrated urine, which can increase the risk of bilirubin toxicity.Newborns receiving phototherapy should be well hydrated and have frequent wet diapers to help eliminate bilirubin from the body.Normal urine color for a newborn is pale yellow or clear.


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Question 12:

A nurse is caring for a preterm infant who has intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH).

Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Explanation

All of the above.

The nurse should take all of the following actions to prevent increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a preterm infant who has intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH):

• Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.This helps to reduce venous congestion and improve cerebral blood flow.

• Avoid suctioning unless absolutely necessary.Suctioning can cause hypoxia, bradycardia, and increased ICP.

• Administer analgesics as prescribed.Pain can increase blood pressure and ICP.

Choice A is wrong because elevating the head of the bed alone is not enough to prevent increased ICP.

Choice B is wrong because avoiding suctioning alone is not enough to prevent increased ICP.

Choice C is wrong because administering analgesics alone is not enough to prevent increased ICP.


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Question 13:

A nurse is educating a parent about how to care for a newborn who has hyperbilirubinemia at home.

Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Explanation

This statement indicates that the parent understands the signs of acute bilirubin encephalopathy, a serious complication of hyperbilirubinemia that can cause brain damage.

The parent should seek immediate medical attention if these symptoms occur.

Choice B is wrong because “I will keep my baby fully clothed and wrapped in blankets.” This statement indicates that the parent does not understand the role of phototherapy in treating hyperbilirubinemia.Phototherapy is a treatment wherein a baby is placed under a special blue spectrum light to reduce the bilirubin levels.The baby should be exposed to as much light as possible, with only the eyes and genitals covered.

Choice C is wrong because “I will limit breastfeeding to no more than 10 minutes per session.” This statement indicates that the parent does not understand the importance of adequate hydration and nutrition in preventing and treating hyperbilirubinemia.Breastfeeding should not be interrupted or limited, as it provides fluids and calories that help the baby excrete bilirubin through urine and stool.The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends breastfeeding at least 8 to 12 times per day for newborns.

Choice D is wrong because “I will avoid exposing my baby to sunlight or artificial light.” This statement indicates that the parent does not understand the difference between natural and artificial light sources for phototherapy.Sunlight or artificial light from lamps or windows are not effective or safe for treating hyperbilirubinemia, as they do not emit the right wavelength or intensity of light, and they can cause overheating, dehydration, sunburn, or eye damage.

The baby should receive phot


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Question 14:

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) through a central venous catheter (CVC).

The current PN bag is empty, and a new PN bag is not available at this time.

Which of the following solutions should the nurse infuse until a new PN bag is available?

Explanation

Dextrose 10% in water.This is because parenteral nutrition (PN) is a mixture of nutrients that is given through a central venous catheter (CVC) that goes directly to the heart.PN contains high concentrations of nutrition and calories, and if the PN bag is empty, it needs to be replaced with a solution that has a similar osmolarity to prevent complications such as hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) or phlebitis (inflammation of the vein).Dextrose 10% in water has an osmolarity of about 500 mOsm/L, which is close to the osmolarity of PN solutions.

Choice A is wrong because 0.9% sodium chloride has an osmolarity of about 300 mOsm/L, which is lower than PN solutions and can cause fluid overload and electrolyte imbalance.

Choice B is wrong because lactated Ringer’s has an osmolarity of about 275 mOsm/L, which is also lower than PN solutions and can cause similar problems as 0.9% sodium chloride.

Choice D is wrong because dextrose 5% in water has an osmolarity of about 250 mOsm/L, which is much lower than PN solutions and can cause rapid drop in blood sugar and vein irritation.


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Question 15:

A nurse is caring for an infant who has a high Bilirubin level and is receiving phototherapy.

Which of the following is the priority finding in the newborn?

Explanation

This is a sign of dehydration, which can be caused by phototherapy.Phototherapy increases insensible water loss through the skin and can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalance in the newborn.The nurse should monitor the newborn’s hydration status, weight, urine output, and serum electrolytes and provide adequate fluid intake.

Choice A is wrong because conjunctivitis is not a common complication of phototherapy.It can be prevented by using eye shields or patches to protect the newborn’s eyes from the light source.

Choice B is wrong because bronze skin discoloration is a rare complication of phototherapy that occurs when the bilirubin level is very high and the skin pigment changes.It is not a priority finding and usually resolves after phototherapy is discontinued.

Choice D is wrong because maculopapular skin rash is a benign side effect of phototherapy that does not require intervention.It usually disappears within a few days after phototherapy is stopped.


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Question 16:

A nurse is assessing a newborn who was born at 35 weeks of gestation and has physiologic jaundice.

Which of the following factors increases the risk of hyperbilirubinemia in this newborn?

Explanation

All of the above factors increase the risk of hyperbilirubinemia in this newborn.Hyperbilirubinemia is a condition of high levels of bilirubin in the blood that can cause jaundice and brain damage.

Choice A is wrong because prematurity is a risk factor for hyperbilirubinemia, especially in babies born before 38 weeks of gestation.Premature babies have immature livers that are less able to process bilirubin and eliminate it from the body.

Choice B is wrong because breastfeeding is a risk factor for hyperbilirubinemia, particularly in some breast-fed babies who do not get enough milk or calories.Breastfeeding can also cause increased enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin, which means that bilirubin is reabsorbed from the intestines into the bloodstream instead of being excreted in the stool.

Choice C is wrong because Asian ethnicity is a risk factor for hyperbilirubinemia, as some Asian populations have higher rates of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, a genetic condition that causes red blood cells to break down more easily and release more bilirubin.Asian infants may also have lower levels of uridine diphosphate glucuronosyltransferase, an enzyme that helps convert bilirubin into a form that can be excreted by the liver.

Normal ranges for bilirubin levels vary depending on the age, weight, and health status of the newborn.Generally, bilirubin levels peak between the third and seventh day after birth and then decline gradually.The AAP recommends using a nomogram based on the infant’s age in hours and serum bilirubin level to determine the risk of severe hyperbilirubinemia and the need for treatment.Treatment options include phototherapy and exchange transfusion.


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Question 17:

A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has celiac disease.

Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Explanation

Corn tortillas.

Celiac disease is a condition that causes damage to the small intestine when gluten is ingested.

Gluten is a protein found in wheat, barley, rye and oats.

Corn tortillas are made from corn flour, which does not contain gluten and is safe for people with celiac disease.

Choice A is wrong because whole wheat bread contains gluten, which can trigger an immune response and damage the small intestine in people with celiac disease.

Choice B is wrong because oatmeal cookies also contain gluten, either from the oats themselves or from cross-contamination with other grains.

Choice D is wrong because barley soup contains barley, which is another source of gluten that can harm people with celiac disease.


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Question 18:

A nurse is reviewing the transcutaneous bilirubin measurement of a newborn who is 48 hours old and has physiologic jaundice.

The measurement is 16 mg/dL.

Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

Transcutaneous bilirubin measurement is a useful screening tool for neonatal hyperbilirubinemia, but it has some limitations and sources of variability.Therefore, any bilirubin screening result obtained must be confirmed by a diagnostic method before treatment.

Choice A is wrong because initiating phototherapy without confirming the bilirubin level could expose the newborn to unnecessary treatment and potential adverse effects.

Choice C is wrong because increasing hydration by feeding more frequently may not be sufficient to lower the bilirubin level if it is too high or if there are other causes of jaundice.

Choice D is wrong because reassuring the parent that this is a normal finding could delay the diagnosis and treatment of severe neonatal hyperbilirubinemia, which can lead to serious complications such as kernicterus spectrum disorders.

Normal ranges for transcutaneous bilirubin measurement vary depending on the device used, the skin pigmentation, and the postnatal age of the newborn.However, a general guideline is that a measurement of 16 mg/dL at 48 hours of age is above the 95th percentile and warrants further investigation.


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Question 19:

A nurse is assessing a client who has anaphylactic shock due to a bee sting.

Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Explanation

Bronchospasm.

Bronchospasm is a constriction of the airways that causes wheezing and trouble breathing.It is one of the symptoms of anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction that can occur within minutes of exposure to something you’re allergic to, such as a bee sting.

Choice A is wrong because bradycardia is a slow heart rate, not a fast one.Anaphylaxis causes a weak and rapid pulse due to low blood pressure.

Choice B is wrong because hypertension is high blood pressure, not low.Anaphylaxis causes blood pressure to drop suddenly and can lead to shock.

Choice D is wrong because warm, dry skin is not a sign of anaphylaxis.Anaphylaxis causes skin reactions such as hives, itching, flushed or pale skin.


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Question 20:

A nurse is evaluating a client who received an immunization for tetanus one week ago.

The client reports pain and swelling at the injection site, low-grade fever, and body aches.

Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Explanation

These are normal inflammatory responses to the vaccine.

The tetanus vaccine protects people from the bacteria that cause tetanus, a serious disease that causes muscle stiffness and spasms.

The vaccine stimulates the body’s immune system to produce antibodies against the bacteria.Sometimes, this immune response can cause mild symptoms such as pain, redness, swelling, fever, headache, or tiredness.

These are not signs of an infection or an allergic reaction, but rather the body’s way of building immunity.

Choice A is wrong because an allergic reaction to the vaccine would cause more severe symptoms such as hives, swelling of the face or throat, difficulty breathing, or shock.

These symptoms would usually occur within minutes or hours of getting the vaccine and require immediate medical attention.

Choice C is wrong because these are not signs of an active infection with tetanus.

Tetanus is a rare but potentially fatal disease that causes muscle spasms and paralysis.

It is caused by bacteria that enter the body through wounds or cuts.The symptoms of tetanus usually appear several days or weeks after exposure and include lockjaw, stiffness of the neck and abdomen, difficulty swallowing, fever, sweating, and seizures.

The tetanus vaccine prevents the disease by creating immunity before exposure.

Choice D is wrong because these are not adverse effects of preservatives in the vaccine.

Preservatives are substances that prevent contamination and spoilage of vaccines.The most common preservative used in tetanus vaccines is thimerosal, a mercury-based compound that has been proven to be safe and effective.

There is no evidence that thimerosal causes autism or any other health problems.

Some people may have a sensitivity to thimerosal or other ingredients in the vaccine, but this is very rare and would cause an allergic reaction as described in choice A.


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Question 21:

A nurse is planning care for a newborn who has hyperbilirubinemia and is receiving phototherapy.

Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Explanation

This is because phototherapy can cause dehydration and increase insensible water loss, so covering the genitalia can prevent excessive fluid loss and maintain thermoregulation.

Some possible explanations for the other choices are:

• Choice A is wrong because monitoring skin temperature every hour is not enough to prevent hyperthermia or hypothermia during phototherapy.The skin temperature should be monitored continuously or at least every 15 minutes.

• Choice C is wrong because repositioning newborn every 4 hours is not frequent enough to prevent pressure ulcers, skin breakdown, or eye damage from the light source.The newborn should be repositioned at least every 2 hours.

• Choice D is wrong because encouraging parent-infant interaction as tolerated is not a specific intervention for phototherapy.

While parent-infant interaction is important for bonding and development, it should not interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy.The newborn should be exposed to the light as much as possible, except for feeding and diaper changes.

Normal ranges for serum bilirubin levels vary depending on the age, gestational age, and risk factors of the newborn.Generally, the levels should be below 5 mg/dL for term infants and below 7 mg/dL for preterm infants by the fifth day of life.


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Question 22:

A nurse is caring for a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).

The client asks why she has to have her blood drawn so often.

Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Explanation

“We need to monitor your kidney function because SLE can cause glomerulonephritis.” Glomerulonephritis is kidney inflammation caused by SLE that can damage the filtering units of the kidneys called glomeruli.SLE is an autoimmune disease that can affect various organs and tissues, including the kidneys.About half of the people with lupus experience kidney involvement, which can lead to kidney failure if not treated.

Therefore, it is important to monitor the kidney function of people with SLE.

Choice B is wrong because SLE does not cause hepatic necrosis, which is the death of liver cells.SLE can cause inflammation of the liver, but this is less common and less severe than kidney involvement.

Choice C is wrong because SLE does not cause hypothyroidism, which is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones.

SLE can affect the thyroid gland, but this is rare and usually does not affect the thyroid function.

Choice D is wrong because SLE does not cause diabetes mellitus, which is a condition where the body cannot regulate blood sugar levels.

SLE can cause inflammation of the pancreas, but this is uncommon and usually does not affect the insulin production.


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Question 23:

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 42 weeks of gestation and is in labor.

The client asked the nurse what to expect because the baby is postmature.

Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Explanation

This is because postmature babies lose the protective vernix that covers their skin in utero, and their skin becomes dry and cracked.Postmature babies also have less subcutaneous fat, which makes them look thin and wrinkled.

Choice A is wrong because postmature babies have less body fat than term babies, not more.They use up their fat stores to survive in the womb beyond 42 weeks of gestation.

Choice B is wrong because postmature babies have well-developed breast buds and areola, not flat ones.Breast development is a sign of fetal maturity that occurs around 36 weeks of gestation.

Choice C is wrong because postmature babies have less flexibility in their joints and muscles, not more.They have less amniotic fluid to cushion their movements, and their bones become more ossified as they grow older.

Normal ranges for gestational age are 37 to 42 weeks.Babies born before 37 weeks are considered preterm, and babies born after 42 weeks are considered postmature.


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Question 24:

The nurse is educating a client about the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia in a newborn.

Which of the following should the nurse include?

Explanation

Jitteriness and poor feeding are common signs of hypoglycemia in a newborn.

Hypoglycemia is when the level of sugar (glucose) in the blood is too low.

Glucose is the main source of fuel for the brain and the body.In a newborn baby, low blood sugar can cause problems such as shakiness, blue tint to the skin, and breathing and feeding problems.

Choice A is wrong because hypertension and bradycardia are not typical symptoms of hypoglycemia in a newborn.

They may indicate other conditions such as heart problems or infection.

Choice B is wrong because diarrhea and vomiting are not specific symptoms of hypoglycemia in a newborn.

They may be caused by many other factors such as infection, food intolerance, or gastroesophageal reflux.

Choice D is wrong because hyperactivity and irritability are not usual symptoms of hypoglycemia in a newborn.

They may be signs of other conditions such as pain, hunger, or overstimulation.

Normal ranges for blood glucose levels in newborns vary depending on the age, gestational age, and feeding status of the baby.Most doctors consider blood glucose that is below 47 milligrams per deciliter (mg/dl) to be the definition of hypoglycemia in newborns.

However, some babies may need higher levels to prevent brain injury.

A doctor will monitor the blood glucose levels of a newborn at risk for hypoglycemia and treat accordingly.


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Question 25:

A baby with hemolytic jaundice is being treated with fluorescent phototherapy.

To provide safe newborn care, which of the following actions should the nurse perform?

Explanation

This is because phototherapy can damage the baby’s eyes and cause retinal injury.Eye pads should be used to protect the baby’s eyes from the light and should be removed every 4 hours to check for infection or injury.

Choice B is wrong because turning the lights off for ten minutes every hour would reduce the effectiveness of phototherapy and prolong the treatment time.Phototherapy aims to expose the baby’s skin to as much light as possible.

Choice C is wrong because clothing the baby in a shirt and diaper only would limit the amount of skin exposed to the light.The baby should be naked or wear only a diaper during phototherapy.

Choice D is wrong because tightly swaddling the baby in a baby blanket would also limit the amount of skin exposed to the light and increase the risk of overheating.The baby should be loosely wrapped or uncovered during phototherapy.


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Question 26:

A newborn is diagnosed with hypoglycemia.

Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

Explanation

Encouraging frequent breastfeeding.

This is because breastfeeding provides glucose to the newborn baby, which can help prevent or treat hypoglycemia (low blood sugar).Hypoglycemia can cause problems such as shakiness, blue tint to the skin, and breathing and feeding problems.

Choice A is wrong because administering IV insulin would lower the blood sugar level even more, which could be dangerous for the baby.

Choice C is wrong because monitoring blood pressure is not directly related to hypoglycemia.

Blood pressure may be affected by other factors such as stress, infection, or dehydration.

Choice D is wrong because administering a hypertonic saline solution would increase the sodium level in the blood, which could cause dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.

A hypertonic saline solution is not a source of glucose for the baby.

Normal ranges for blood glucose levels in newborns are between 47 to 85 mg/dL.Hypoglycemia is defined as blood glucose below 47 mg/dL.


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Question 27:

A baby’s blood type is B negative.

The baby is at risk for hemolytic jaundice if the mother has which of the following blood types?

Explanation

The baby is at risk for hemolytic jaundice if the mother has a different blood type that is incompatible with the baby’s blood type.This can cause the mother’s immune system to produce antibodies that attack the baby’s red blood cells, leading to hemolysis or excessive destruction of red blood cells.Hemolysis can cause bilirubin, a yellowish pigment, to accumulate in the baby’s blood, tissues, and fluids, causing jaundice.It can also cause anemia, a condition where the blood does not have enough healthy red blood cells.

Choice A is wrong because O positive is compatible with B negative.

O positive is the universal donor, meaning it can donate blood to any other blood type without causing a reaction.

Choice B is wrong because AB negative is compatible with B negative.

AB negative is the universal recipient, meaning it can receive blood from any other blood type without causing a reaction.

Choice D is wrong because A negative is incompatible with B negative.

A negative and B negative are different blood types that can cause a reaction if mixed together.


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Question 28:

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who has hypoglycemia.

The nurse should identify that a normal blood glucose level for a healthy term newborn is between which of the following ranges?

Explanation

A normal blood glucose level for a healthy term newborn is between 30 and 60 mg/dL.This range is lower than that of older children and adults, because newborns are adapting to life outside the womb and their glucose levels rise gradually after birth.

Choice A is wrong because 10 and 30 mg/dL is too low for a newborn and indicates hypoglycemia, which can cause symptoms such as jitteriness, poor feeding, lethargy, and cyanosis.

Choice C is wrong because 60 and 90 mg/dL is too high for a newborn and indicates hyperglycemia, which can cause symptoms such as dehydration, poor feeding, irritability, and seizures.

Choice D is wrong because 90 and 120 mg/dL is also too high for a newborn and indicates hyperglycemia, which can have the same consequences as choice C.


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Question 29:

A nurse is educating the parents of a newborn who has hypoglycemia about how to feed their baby.

The nurse should instruct the parents to do which of the following actions?

Explanation

This is because newborns with hypoglycemia need to receive adequate nutrition to raise their blood glucose levels and prevent neurologic damage.Early feeding also helps establish breast milk supply for nursing mothers.

Choice B is wrong because feeding the baby only when he cries may delay the intake of glucose and worsen the hypoglycemia.Newborns with hypoglycemia should be fed on demand or at least every 2 to 3 hours.

Choice C is wrong because feeding the baby every 6 hours is too infrequent and may cause prolonged hypoglycemia.Newborns with hypoglycemia should be fed on demand or at least every 2 to 3 hours.

Choice D is wrong because feeding the baby with glucose water may not provide enough calories and nutrients for growth and development.Newborns with hypoglycemia should be fed with breast milk or formula.Glucose water may be used as a temporary measure until breast milk or formula is available.


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