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Non parental safe medication quiz

Total Questions : 14

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Question 1:

A client is attempting to put pills in his mouth from a medicine cup and drops one pill on the bed sheet. The nurse should:

Explanation

A) Discard the pill and get another from the dose pack: This option is the most appropriate action. Once a pill has fallen onto the bed linens, it may be contaminated and should not be administered to the client. The nurse should discard the dropped pill and provide a new one to ensure patient safety and maintain hygiene standards.

B) Scoop up the pill in a soufflé cup and hand the cup to the client: This action is inappropriate as it fails to address potential contamination. A pill that has fallen onto bedding may carry bacteria or other pathogens, so it should not be given to the client even if it is retrieved in a different container.

C) Retrieve the pill from the linens and allow the client to take it: This option is unsafe and violates infection control protocols. Giving a pill that has been dropped on bedding poses a risk of contamination and should be avoided.

D) Report the loss of the pill as a medication error: While reporting medication errors is important, in this case, the action taken (discarding the pill and providing a new one) aligns with best practices. The loss of one pill due to a drop does not constitute a medication error in the same sense as an administration mistake, so this option is not necessary.


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Question 2:

When applying ophthalmic ointments, the nurse should: (Select all that apply.)

Explanation

A) Fill only the center of the conjunctival sac: This option is incorrect. When applying ophthalmic ointment, the ointment should be placed along the entire length of the conjunctival sac, not just the center, to ensure proper distribution and effectiveness.

B) Remove excess ointment from the lid with a cotton ball: This action is not recommended. Instead of using a cotton ball, which may introduce fibers or contaminants, excess ointment should be gently wiped away with a clean tissue or cloth if necessary. However, it is generally best to avoid excess application in the first place.

C) Remove gloves and perform hand hygiene: This option is correct. After applying the ointment, the nurse should remove gloves and perform hand hygiene to prevent any potential contamination and maintain proper infection control practices.

D) Ask the client to roll the eye around and from side to side: This is a correct action. Encouraging the client to roll their eyes helps distribute the ointment evenly across the surface of the eye, enhancing its effectiveness.

E) Ask the client to close the eyelids tightly to distribute ointment: This option is also correct. Closing the eyelids helps spread the ointment over the conjunctival surface, ensuring better coverage and absorption of the medication.


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Question 3:

A nurse is administering oral medications to patients. Which action will the nurse take?

Explanation

A) Measure liquid medication by bringing liquid medication cup to eye level: This is the correct action. Measuring liquid medications at eye level ensures accuracy and helps the nurse confirm the correct dosage, minimizing the risk of administration errors.

B) Crush enteric-coated medication and place it in a medication cup with water: This option is incorrect. Enteric-coated medications are designed to dissolve in the intestine, not in the stomach, and crushing them can alter their effectiveness and increase the risk of side effects. These medications should be administered whole.

C) Place all of the client's medications in the same cup, except medications with assessments: This option is not advisable without knowing how the medications interact. Certain medications may have specific requirements for administration and should not be mixed together, as this could lead to confusion or adverse reactions.

D) Remove the medication from the wrapper and place it in a cup labeled with the client's information: While labeling is crucial for safety, medications should ideally be kept in their original packaging until administration to prevent confusion and ensure that the nurse has all necessary information about the medication at hand. Medications should only be removed when preparing for immediate administration.


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Question 4:

Before the nurse administers a liquid medication to an 83-year-old male client, the nurse should:

Explanation

A) Ask the client if he would prefer to give the medication to himself: While involving the client in their care is important, this option does not assess the client’s ability to safely take the medication. The nurse should first ensure that the client can swallow the medication safely.

B) Assess the swallowing reflex by offering a sip of water: This is the correct action. Assessing the swallowing reflex is essential, especially in older adults, to determine if they can safely swallow liquid medications without risk of aspiration.

C) Mix thoroughly in applesauce or pudding: This option is not appropriate unless specifically ordered or indicated. Mixing medications in food may not be suitable for all clients, and it can affect the medication's absorption or effectiveness. Additionally, it does not assess the client's swallowing ability.

D) Assess the ability to understand information relative to the medication: While this is important, it is secondary to ensuring that the client can physically take the medication safely. Assessing understanding can occur after confirming the client’s ability to swallow the medication.


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Question 5:

A client complains about the taste of the sublingual nitro-glycerine and admits that he swallows it rather than holding it under his tongue. The nurse explains that sublingual medications:

Explanation

A) Should not be swallowed because it alters the absorption potential: This is the correct explanation. Sublingual medications, such as nitroglycerin, are designed to be absorbed quickly through the mucous membranes under the tongue. Swallowing the medication can significantly reduce its effectiveness and delay absorption, which is crucial for medications used in acute situations like angina.

B) Can be held against the roof of the mouth with the tongue to reduce taste: This option is not correct. Holding the medication against the roof of the mouth does not facilitate the intended sublingual absorption and may not significantly mitigate the taste issue. The medication needs to dissolve under the tongue for effective absorption.

C) Can be inserted rectally without loss of absorption potential: This option is incorrect. Sublingual medications are formulated for absorption through the sublingual mucosa and would not provide the same effects if administered rectally. Different routes of administration have different absorption profiles.

D) Can be taken between the cheek and tongue to diminish taste: While this may help with taste, it does not achieve the desired sublingual absorption. For optimal effect, the medication should be held under the tongue, where it can dissolve and be absorbed directly into the bloodstream.


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Question 6:

The ear canal should be straightened when instilling eardrops to provide direct access to deeper ear structures. In what direction should the auricle be pulled in an infant to straighten the ear canal?

Explanation

A) Upward and back: This direction is appropriate for adults and older children but not for infants. The anatomy of an infant's ear canal requires a different approach for effective eardrop administration.

B) Upward and outward: This option is also incorrect for infants. Similar to option A, this technique does not effectively account for the anatomical differences in an infant's ear canal.

C) Downward and back: This is the correct action when administering eardrops to an infant. Pulling the auricle downward and back straightens the ear canal, allowing for better access to deeper structures and ensuring that the drops reach the intended area.

D) Downward and inward: This direction is not appropriate for straightening the ear canal. The correct technique is to pull downward and back to achieve the desired angle for effective administration of eardrops in infants.


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Question 7:

The nurse administering a nasal medication via an atomizer bottle should:

Explanation

A) Have the client sit up straight: This is the correct action. Sitting up straight helps ensure that the medication can be properly delivered to the nasal passages and increases the likelihood of effective absorption.

B) Leave the other nostril open while giving the medication: While it is often recommended to keep the opposite nostril open to allow for airflow, the medication should be delivered to one nostril at a time. The other nostril should typically be closed or pinched shut to direct the medication effectively.

C) Have the client tilt the head forward: This option is incorrect. Tilting the head forward can make it more difficult for the medication to reach the upper nasal passages. The client should usually keep their head in a neutral position or slightly tilted back.

D) Have the client squeeze the bottle while inhaling: This action is not ideal. The client should inhale gently while the nurse squeezes the atomizer to ensure that the medication is effectively distributed throughout the nasal passages. Squeezing the bottle should be coordinated with inhalation to achieve the best results.


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Question 8:

A client has an order for a nitroglycerin transdermal patch. The best way to ensure proper administration of this medication is to:

Explanation

A) Apply it behind the ear: This option is not correct. Nitroglycerin patches are typically applied to hairless areas of the skin to ensure proper adhesion and absorption. The preferred locations are usually the chest, upper arm, or thigh.

B) Place it over a hairy skin area: This action is inappropriate as hair can interfere with the adhesion of the patch and may affect absorption. It is essential to apply the patch to a clean, dry, and hairless area for optimal effectiveness.

C) Rotate sites to avoid skin irritation: This is the correct action. Rotating the application site helps prevent skin irritation and allows for better absorption of the medication. It also reduces the risk of sensitization or reaction at any one site.

D) Put the initials on the patch when applied: While documenting the application is important, simply putting initials on the patch is not sufficient for ensuring proper administration. It is more crucial to ensure that the patch is applied correctly, and monitoring for skin integrity and effectiveness should be part of the nursing care plan.


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Question 9:

A client has been prescribed eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. The nurse is observing the client self-administer the eye drops. Which action by the client requires further teaching?

Explanation

A) While administering the eye drops, a drop lands on the client's outer lid, so the client administers another drop: This action requires further teaching. If a drop lands outside the eye, the client should not administer another drop without first cleaning the area. It’s important to avoid excessive dosing and to ensure the medication is delivered properly.

B) The client cleans the eye from the inner to the outer canthus: This is the correct technique. Cleaning the eye from the inner canthus to the outer canthus helps prevent the spread of debris and ensures a clean area for administering drops.

C) The client looks upward toward the ceiling and administers the eye drops in the conjunctival sac: This action is appropriate. Looking upward helps expose the conjunctival sac, making it easier to administer the drops effectively.

D) The client touches the conjunctival sac with the eyedropper to make sure she is in the correct location: This action requires further teaching. Touching the conjunctival sac with the eyedropper can introduce bacteria and lead to contamination or injury. The client should be advised to keep the dropper tip away from the eye to maintain sterility and safety.


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Question 10:

A client who is being discharged today is going home with an inhaler. The client is to administer 2 puffs of the inhaler twice daily. The inhaler contains 200 puffs. When should the nurse appropriately advise the client to refill the medication?

Explanation

A) 6 weeks from the start of using the inhaler: This option is not accurate. The timing for refilling should be based on the actual usage rather than a fixed period, and 6 weeks may not align with the client’s actual consumption.

B) As soon as the client leaves the hospital: This option is premature. The client does not need to refill the inhaler immediately upon discharge since they may not have used many puffs yet.

C) 50 days after discharge: This is the correct answer. If the client is to administer 2 puffs twice daily, that totals 4 puffs per day. With 200 puffs in the inhaler, the inhaler would last for 50 days (200 puffs ÷ 4 puffs per day = 50 days). Advising the client to refill the medication approximately 50 days after discharge ensures they have enough medication available.

D) When the inhaler is half empty: This option could lead to refilling too early or too late, depending on the individual’s usage pattern. Advising to refill based on a specific number of days or puffs used provides a more precise recommendation.


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Question 11:

The UAP reports the client is complaining of dizziness and nausea after the administration of eardrops. What is the most likely cause of the dizziness?

Explanation

A) Cerumen or drainage is occluding the ear canal: While cerumen or drainage can cause discomfort, it is less likely to be the direct cause of dizziness following the administration of eardrops. Dizziness is more commonly associated with changes in pressure or temperature in the ear.

B) Too much pressure was applied during instillation, with subsequent injury to the eardrum: Although excessive pressure can lead to injury, the immediate symptom of dizziness after eardrop administration is more closely related to other factors, particularly temperature or positioning.

C) The client failed to remain in the side-lying position long enough: This option is incorrect because not maintaining the position may affect medication absorption but is unlikely to cause immediate dizziness and nausea.

D) The medication was too cold when it was administered: This is the most likely cause of the dizziness. Cold eardrops can cause a rapid change in temperature within the ear canal, potentially stimulating the vestibular system and leading to dizziness or vertigo. It is generally recommended to warm eardrops to body temperature before administration to minimize this risk.


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Question 12:

A nurse teaches the client about the prescribed buccal medication. Which statement by the client indicates teaching by the nurse is successful?

Explanation

A) "I should let the medication dissolve completely": This statement is correct and indicates that the client understands the proper administration of buccal medication. Buccal medications are designed to dissolve slowly between the gum and cheek, allowing for absorption directly into the bloodstream.

B) "I can only drink water, not juice, with this medication": This option is not accurate for buccal medications. While it is important to avoid swallowing the medication prematurely, there are generally no restrictions against consuming juice unless specified by the healthcare provider.

C) "I better chew my medication first for faster distribution": This statement indicates a misunderstanding. Buccal medications should not be chewed, as this can interfere with the intended slow release and absorption of the medication.

D) "I will place the medication in the same location": While placing the medication in the buccal pouch is important, it is not necessary to place it in the same exact spot every time. Rotating the site can help prevent irritation. This statement does not indicate a complete understanding of the proper technique.


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Question 13:

The nurse begins a shift on a busy medical-surgical unit and will be caring for multiple clients. Which client does the nurse assess first?

Explanation

A) A client who has a question about her daily medications: While it's important to address questions regarding medications, this client does not present an immediate clinical concern that requires urgent attention.

B) A client who needs discharge teaching about an antibiotic: Although discharge teaching is important, it is not an immediate priority compared to the potential instability of a client with chest pain.

C) A client who just received nitroglycerin for chest pain: This is the correct choice. A client who has received nitroglycerin needs to be closely monitored for its effects, including blood pressure and relief of chest pain. This situation is potentially critical, making it the highest priority for assessment.

D) A client who would like some acetaminophen (Tylenol) for a mild headache: While this request should be addressed, it is not as urgent as the need to assess the client who has recently received nitroglycerin. Managing a mild headache is less critical compared to monitoring a client with chest pain.


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Question 14:

Which medication administration activity can be delegated to a UAP?

Explanation

A) Application of a transdermal patch: The application of transdermal patches is typically within the scope of licensed nursing personnel due to the need for appropriate placement, potential absorption risks, and proper documentation. This task requires understanding of the medication's effects, which is outside the scope of a UAP’s duties.

B) Use of MDIs: Metered-dose inhalers (MDIs) involve medication administration, which requires client assessment, monitoring of technique, and evaluation of response to therapy. These are skills that a UAP is not trained to handle, as they fall within a licensed nurse's responsibilities.

C) Application of a skin barrier cream to the perineal area: UAPs can apply non-medicated skin barrier creams to protect the skin in the perineal area, as it is a basic care activity. This task does not require specialized training in medication administration and is within the typical role of a UAP for maintaining skin integrity.

D) Instillation of eye drops: Administering eye drops involves medication administration, which includes proper technique, dosing, and monitoring for side effects, making it a task for licensed nursing personnel rather than a UAP.

E) Inserting rectal medications: Rectal medication insertion is a more advanced procedure that requires medication administration knowledge, correct positioning, and monitoring, which are responsibilities designated for licensed nursing staff, not a UAP.

F) Instillation of ear drops: Administering ear drops requires an understanding of dosing, technique, and monitoring for adverse effects, all of which are beyond the scope of practice for UAPs and are typically carried out by licensed nursing staff.

G) Inserting vaginal medications: Vaginal medication administration requires understanding of proper technique and monitoring for therapeutic effects or side effects, which necessitates a licensed nurse’s assessment skills and should not be delegated to a UAP.


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