ATI > RN

Exam Review

Ob maternal newborn exam East Los Ángeles college

Total Questions : 56

Showing 25 questions, Sign in for more
Question 1:

The nursing staff in a labor and delivery unit has noticed an increase in the number of patients experiencing placental abruption.
The nurses begin to review demographics for the patients involved. Which risk factors will the nurses expect? Select all that apply.

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Hypertensive disorders, such as preeclampsia, increase the risk of placental abruption. They can cause changes in the blood vessels of the placenta, reducing blood flow and increasing the likelihood of separation.

Choice B rationale

Uterine fibroids, which are noncancerous growths in the uterus, can interfere with the proper attachment of the placenta, raising the risk of placental abruption.

Choice C rationale

Cigarette smoking contributes to placental abruption by reducing oxygen supply to the placenta, causing placental insufficiency and increasing the risk of premature separation.

Choice D rationale

Abdominal trauma, such as from a fall or car accident, can cause mechanical disruption of the placenta, leading to abruption.

Choice E rationale

Methamphetamine use can cause vasoconstriction and hypertension, which compromise placental blood flow and increase the risk of abruption.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 2:

A patient with pregestational diabetes mellitus delivers a neonate who is diagnosed with macrosomia. The nurse is aware that the neonate is at risk for additional long-term conditions related to maternal diabetes mellitus.
Which long-term effects may occur? Select all that apply.

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Impaired intellectual development in children born to mothers with diabetes can occur due to fluctuating blood glucose levels, which can affect brain development.

Choice B rationale

Development of metabolic syndrome is more likely in children born to mothers with diabetes due to genetic predispositions and prenatal exposure to hyperglycemia.

Choice C rationale

Shoulder injury related to birth size, although a possible immediate complication, is not typically considered a long-term effect of maternal diabetes.

Choice D rationale

Changes in genetic expression can occur due to epigenetic modifications from exposure to maternal diabetes, potentially leading to various health issues later in life.

Choice E rationale

Increased risk for chronic illnesses, such as type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular diseases, is higher in children born to mothers with diabetes, due to genetic and environmental factors.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 3:

 

When assisting with a vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery, the nurse is aware that adherence to which guidelines for the vacuum device will minimize the nurse's liability in vacuum-assisted vaginal births? Select all that apply.

 

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Pumping up the vacuum manually to the pressure indicated on the pump is a standard procedure but doesn't directly minimize liability.

Choice B rationale

Recognizing cup detachment (pop off) as a warning sign is critical, as it indicates excessive force or poor positioning, which can lead to fetal or maternal injury.

Choice C rationale

Limiting the cup's attachment to the fetal head to 5 to 10 minutes reduces the risk of scalp injury and other complications, thus minimizing liability.

Choice D rationale

Timing the procedure from insertion of the cup into the vagina until the birth is a guideline but doesn't specifically address liability concerns.

Choice E rationale

Releasing pressure between contractions prevents continuous suction on the fetal head, reducing the risk of injury and thereby minimizing liability.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 4:

Which of the following physical findings would lead the nurse to suspect that a client who has pre-eclampsia with severe features has developed HELLP syndrome? Select all that apply.

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Petechiae, small red or purple spots on the skin, indicate a low platelet count, which is a component of HELLP syndrome.

Choice B rationale

Jaundice, a yellowing of the skin and eyes, suggests liver involvement and hemolysis, both of which are features of HELLP syndrome.

Choice C rationale

4+ deep tendon reflexes are associated with severe pre-eclampsia but are not specific to HELLP syndrome.

Choice D rationale

3+ pitting edema, severe fluid retention causing swelling, can be a sign of HELLP syndrome, indicating liver or kidney involvement. .


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 5:

A gravid patient in labor suddenly has dyspnea, hypotension, frothy sputum, and loss of consciousness.
The nurse knows these are signs and symptoms of which obstetrical emergency?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Placental abruption involves the detachment of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery, causing bleeding, abdominal pain, and uterine tenderness. It does not typically cause dyspnea, hypotension, frothy sputum, or loss of consciousness.

Choice B rationale

Uterine rupture is a tear in the uterine wall, often in a scarred uterus. Symptoms include severe abdominal pain, abnormal fetal heart rate, and vaginal bleeding. It can cause shock, but not frothy sputum or sudden dyspnea.

Choice C rationale

Uterine inversion occurs when the uterus turns inside out, often during placental delivery. It leads to pain, hemorrhage, and shock. Like uterine rupture, it does not cause frothy sputum or sudden dyspnea.

Choice D rationale

Anaphylactoid syndrome (amniotic fluid embolism) occurs when amniotic fluid enters the maternal circulation, causing an anaphylactic reaction. Symptoms include sudden dyspnea, hypotension, frothy sputum, and loss of consciousness, fitting the scenario described.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 6:

While you are taking Monique's vital signs and performing a postpartum assessment 4 hours after delivery, she tells you she is feeling lightheaded. She has a history of chronic hypertension and obesity.

Her vital signs are blood pressure 85/57 mm Hg, pulse 132, respirations 28, oxygen saturation 94%. Her uterus is boggy at midline, 1 cm above the umbilicus.
What would be your next steps and anticipated orders?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Massaging the fundus helps to stimulate uterine contractions, reducing bleeding and promoting firmness in the uterus. Ensuring IV access is critical for administering medications and

fluids quickly.

Choice B rationale

Methylergonovine (Methergine) is used to prevent and control postpartum hemorrhage by promoting uterine contractions. Oxytocin bolus also helps stimulate contractions, preventing

further blood loss.

Choice C rationale

Carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) is another uterotonic agent used to control severe postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions. Its use depends on the patient's

response to other treatments.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 7:

A gravid patient in labor suddenly has dyspnea, hypotension, frothy sputum, and loss of consciousness.
The nurse knows these are signs and symptoms of which obstetrical emergency?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Placental abruption is characterized by abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and uterine tenderness. It does not cause dyspnea, hypotension, frothy sputum, or loss of consciousness.

Choice B rationale

Uterine rupture typically presents with severe abdominal pain, abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, and vaginal bleeding. Shock can occur, but not frothy sputum or sudden dyspnea.

Choice C rationale

Uterine inversion leads to pain, hemorrhage, and shock. It does not present with frothy sputum or sudden dyspnea.

Choice D rationale

Anaphylactoid syndrome (amniotic fluid embolism) results from amniotic fluid entering maternal circulation, causing an anaphylactic reaction. Symptoms include sudden dyspnea, hypotension, frothy sputum, and loss of consciousness, matching the described scenario. .


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 8:

While you are taking Monique's vital signs and performing a postpartum assessment 4 hours after delivery, she tells you she is feeling lightheaded.She has a history of chronic hypertension and obesity.

Her vital signs are blood pressure 85/57 mm Hg, pulse 132, respirations 28, oxygen saturation 94%. Her uterus is boggy at midline, 1 cm above the umbilicus.
What would be your next steps and anticipated orders?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Massaging the fundus can help contract the uterus and reduce bleeding. Ensuring IV access is crucial for administering medications rapidly. Methylergonovine (Methergine) and oxytocin help stimulate uterine contractions and reduce postpartum hemorrhage, which can be life-threatening.

Choice B rationale

Administering pain medication might be necessary, but it doesn't address the immediate issue of uterine atony and hemorrhage. Surgical intervention is a last resort and should be prepared for only if medical management fails.

Choice C rationale

Reassessing vital signs and monitoring is important, but it doesn't provide an immediate solution to the bleeding and uterine atony. Immediate action to contract the uterus is crucial.

Choice D rationale

Contacting the attending physician is important, but immediate intervention to stop the bleeding and address uterine atony is critical to prevent further complications.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 9:

The nurse is caring for the postpartum client.
Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to conclude that the administration of carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) has been effective?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Reduction of fever is not a primary effect of carboprost tromethamine. This medication is primarily used to induce uterine contractions to manage postpartum hemorrhage.

Choice B rationale

While maintaining stable blood pressure is important, it is not the specific indicator of carboprost tromethamine's effectiveness. This medication is used to control bleeding.

Choice C rationale

Increased comfort, although significant, is not the direct effect of carboprost tromethamine. The primary aim is to induce uterine contractions to manage hemorrhage.

Choice D rationale

Decreased lochia rubra indicates the reduction of postpartum bleeding, which is the primary purpose of administering carboprost tromethamine. This outcome shows the medication is effective.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 10:

A nurse massages the uterus of a postpartum woman after making a hypothesis of uterine atony.
Which of the following outcomes would indicate that the client's condition had improved?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Decreased pain level can be an effect of addressing the cause of pain, but it doesn't indicate improved uterine tone or resolution of atony.

Choice B rationale

Stable blood pressure is important, but it is not the direct outcome of improved uterine tone or the resolution of uterine atony.

Choice C rationale

A firm fundus at or below the umbilicus indicates successful contraction of the uterus, resolving uterine atony and reducing bleeding.

Choice D rationale

Reduced lochial flow can indicate decreased bleeding, but it does not directly indicate improved uterine tone or resolution of uterine atony.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 11:

In which of the following situations should a nurse report a possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Numbness in the toes and heel might suggest nerve involvement but is not a typical sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which involves the veins, not nerves.

Choice B rationale

Pain relieved by dorsiflexion (positive Homan's sign) is not reliable for diagnosing DVT. This symptom is outdated and not considered a definitive sign.

Choice C rationale

Spider-like and purple veins suggest superficial varicose veins, not deep vein thrombosis, which affects deeper veins and presents differently.

Choice D rationale

Swelling, redness, and warmth in the calf are classic signs of DVT due to the inflammation and obstruction of deep veins. These symptoms should prompt immediate medical evaluation and intervention. .


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 12:

A breastfeeding mother calls the obstetrician's office with a complaint of pain in one breast. Upon inspection, a diagnosis of mastitis is made.
Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Applying ice packs can help reduce pain and swelling, but it is not the best intervention for a breastfeeding mother with mastitis. Ice can constrict blood vessels and may hinder milk

flow, which can exacerbate the condition.

Choice B rationale

Frequent breastfeeding helps to empty the affected breast and prevent milk stasis, reducing the risk of abscess formation and promoting faster healing. The mechanical action of

nursing can help clear the infection and provide relief.

Choice C rationale

Weaning immediately is not advised as it can lead to engorgement and milk stasis, worsening the infection. Continuing to breastfeed ensures the breast is regularly emptied, aiding

in recovery.

Choice D rationale

While notifying the pediatrician may be necessary if the baby is affected, it does not directly address the mother's condition or provide immediate relief. Primary management focuses

on treating the infection and maintaining milk flow.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 13:

A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about neonatal abstinence syndrome.
Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicate understanding of the teaching?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Decreased muscle tone is not typically associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS). Instead, NAS often presents with hypertonia or increased muscle tone due to

withdrawal symptoms.

Choice B rationale

A continuous high-pitched cry is a hallmark sign of NAS, indicating the newborn is experiencing withdrawal and discomfort. This symptom results from the overstimulation of the

central nervous system.

Choice C rationale

Newborns with NAS often have difficulty sleeping and may sleep for shorter periods due to irritability and discomfort. Prolonged sleep after feeding is not characteristic of NAS.

Choice D rationale

Tremors in newborns with NAS are usually pronounced and continuous, not just when disturbed. These tremors are a result of withdrawal effects on the nervous system.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 14:

A postpartum client has been diagnosed with postpartum psychosis.
Which of the following is essential to be included in the family teaching for this client?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Postpartum psychosis poses significant risks to both the mother and her infant. The mother may have impaired judgment, hallucinations, or delusions, making it unsafe for her to be

left alone with her baby.

Choice B rationale

Symptoms of postpartum psychosis can persist for several weeks to months without appropriate treatment. Immediate and ongoing intervention is crucial to manage the condition.

Choice C rationale

Clinical response to medications for postpartum psychosis can vary, but with proper treatment, many clients show significant improvement. It is not accurate to state that the

response is usually poor.

Choice D rationale

While monitoring vitals may be part of overall care, it is not the most critical teaching point. Ensuring the mother is never left alone with her infant is essential to prevent potential

harm.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 15:

A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about neonatal abstinence syndrome.
Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicate understanding of the teaching?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Decreased muscle tone is not typically associated with NAS. NAS often presents with increased muscle tone due to withdrawal symptoms.

Choice B rationale

A continuous high-pitched cry is a hallmark sign of NAS, indicating withdrawal and discomfort. This is due to overstimulation of the central nervous system.

Choice C rationale

Newborns with NAS often have difficulty sleeping due to irritability and discomfort, sleeping for shorter periods.

Choice D rationale

Tremors in NAS are typically pronounced and continuous, not just when disturbed. These tremors result from withdrawal effects on the nervous system.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 16:

A postpartum client has been diagnosed with postpartum psychosis.
Which of the following is essential to be included in the family teaching for this client?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Postpartum psychosis is a serious mental health condition that can result in delusions and hallucinations. These symptoms increase the risk of harm to the infant, so it's essential that

the mother is not left alone with the baby to ensure both their safety.

Choice B rationale

Symptoms of postpartum psychosis typically last longer than one week and require medical intervention, contrary to what is stated in this choice. Treatment usually involves

antipsychotics, mood stabilizers, and sometimes hospitalization.

Choice C rationale

Clinical response to medications can be significant in many cases, and early and aggressive treatment often leads to improvement. This statement is inaccurate and does not reflect

the current understanding of postpartum psychosis treatment.

Choice D rationale

While monitoring vital signs is essential, it is not as critical as ensuring the infant's safety given the mother’s severe mental condition. The focus should be on psychiatric

management and safety protocols rather than routine vitals alone.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 17:

While you are taking Monique's vital signs and performing a postpartum assessment 4 hours after delivery, she tells you she is feeling lightheaded. She has a history of chronic hypertension and obesity. Her vital signs are blood pressure 85/57 mm Hg, pulse 132, respirations 28, oxygen saturation 94%. Her uterus is boggy at midline, 1 cm above the umbilicus.
What would be your next steps and anticipated orders?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

While massaging the fundus and ensuring IV access are correct initial actions, methylergonovine (Methergine) is typically used for patients without hypertensive history due to its

potential to raise blood pressure.

Choice B rationale

This option correctly identifies initial steps and appropriate medication. Carboprost-tromethamine (Hemabate) is effective in controlling postpartum hemorrhage and can be safely

used in patients with hypertension when oxytocin is insufficient.

Choice C rationale

Quantifying blood loss is essential but it is not an immediate priority when the patient is showing signs of significant bleeding and instability. Immediate intervention to control bleeding

takes precedence.

Choice D rationale

Assisting the patient to the restroom and then massaging the fundus overlooks the immediate need to control bleeding. This approach may delay necessary treatment and increase

the risk of further hemorrhage.

Choice E rationale

Straight catheterization and oxytocin maintenance are part of the management of postpartum hemorrhage but do not address the immediate need to ensure uterine contraction and

control active bleeding as effectively as the initial steps outlined in Choice B. .


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 18:

A nurse makes the following observations when admitting a full-term, breastfeeding baby into the neonatal nursery: 9 lb 2 oz (4,139 grams), 21 inches long, TPR 96.6°F (35.9°C), 158, 62, jittery, pink body with bluish hands and feet, crying.
Which of the following nursing actions is of highest importance?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Swaddling provides warmth but doesn't address jitteriness, which may be due to hypoglycemia.

Choice B rationale

Jitteriness in a newborn can indicate hypoglycemia. Prompt glucose assessment is crucial for early detection and management.

Choice C rationale

Feeding could help with glucose levels, but without knowing the glucose status, it might not be the immediate priority.

Choice D rationale

Routine medications are important but not as urgent as addressing possible hypoglycemia in a jittery baby.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 19:

Which symptom would the nurse expect to observe in a postpartum client with a vaginal hematoma?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Vaginal hematomas are usually associated with severe pain due to the accumulation of blood in the tissues.

Choice B rationale

Bleeding might be visible, but hematomas often cause internal accumulation, not external bleeding.

Choice C rationale

Warmth is not typically associated with hematomas; instead, pain and swelling are more common.

Choice D rationale

Redness may occur, but pain is the most consistent symptom.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 20:

Which of the following is the appropriate nursing care outcome for a client who suddenly develops anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy (ASP) during labor?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

While infection prevention is vital, ensuring breathing function is more critical after ASP.

Choice B rationale

ASP affects the respiratory system severely; thus, restoring normal breathing is a primary goal.

Choice C rationale

Gastrointestinal function is less immediately affected by ASP compared to respiratory issues.

Choice D rationale

Voiding without pain is important, but respiratory stability takes precedence.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 21:

A delirious client is admitted to the hospital in labor. She has had no prenatal care and vials of crack cocaine are found in her pockets.
The nurse monitors this client carefully for which of the following intrapartum complications?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Prolonged labor is not directly linked to drug use and does not present as an immediate complication.

Choice B rationale

Prolapsed cord is not associated with substance abuse and lacks direct connection to this scenario.

Choice C rationale

Cocaine use heightens the risk of abruptio placentae, a serious condition where the placenta detaches prematurely.

Choice D rationale

Retained placenta is a concern but less likely than abruptio placentae in the context of cocaine use.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 22:

A nurse makes the following observations when admitting a full-term, breastfeeding baby into the neonatal nursery: 9 lb 2 oz (4,139 grams), 21 inches long, TPR: 96.6° F (35.9° C), 158, 62, jittery, pink body with bluish hands and feet, crying.
Which of the following nursing actions is of highest importance?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Swaddling provides warmth but doesn't address jitteriness, which may be due to hypoglycemia.

Choice B rationale

Jitteriness in a newborn can indicate hypoglycemia. Prompt glucose assessment is crucial for early detection and management.

Choice C rationale

Feeding could help with glucose levels, but without knowing the glucose status, it might not be the immediate priority.

Choice D rationale

Routine medications are important but not as urgent as addressing possible hypoglycemia in a jittery baby.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 23:

Which symptom would the nurse expect to observe in a postpartum client with a vaginal hematoma?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Bleeding is typically not associated with a vaginal hematoma; it is more indicative of other postpartum complications such as uterine atony or retained placenta fragments.

Choice B rationale

Warmth is usually associated with infection or inflammation. A hematoma is a collection of clotted blood outside the blood vessels, not typically characterized by warmth.

Choice C rationale

Redness might be seen in cases of infection or inflammation. A vaginal hematoma is a localized collection of blood and does not inherently cause redness.

Choice D rationale

Pain is a common symptom of a vaginal hematoma due to the pressure and swelling from the accumulated blood.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 24:

An 18-hour-old baby with an elevated bilirubin level is placed under the bili lights.
Which of the following is an expected nursing action in these circumstances?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Oral rehydration therapy is not used in place of feedings for infants undergoing phototherapy for elevated bilirubin levels. It's crucial to maintain proper nutrition and hydration through regular feedings.

Choice B rationale

Rotating the baby helps ensure even exposure to the bili lights, which aids in breaking down bilirubin effectively across the baby's body.

Choice C rationale

Applying restraints is inappropriate and unnecessary. It could cause distress and is not a standard practice for phototherapy.

Choice D rationale

Administering intravenous fluids is not typically needed unless there's a risk of dehydration or other medical indications as per the doctor's orders.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Question 25:

The antepartum nurse has just received shift report on four pregnant clients at 0700.
Which of the clients should the nurse assess first?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

The hemoglobin level of 11.6 g/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman. While placenta previa requires monitoring, it is not immediately life-threatening.

Choice B rationale

Type 2 diabetes mellitus requires regular monitoring and management, but a single fasting blood glucose level does not indicate an immediate emergency unless it is extremely high or low.

Choice C rationale

Partial placental abruption can lead to significant complications for both the mother and fetus, including hemorrhage and fetal distress, making it the priority for immediate assessment.

Choice D rationale

An Rh-negative status and a recent cerclage placement are important for ongoing monitoring but do not present an immediate life-threatening condition that demands the first assessment.


0 Pulse Checks
No comments

Sign Up or Login to view all the 56 Questions on this Exam

Join over 100,000+ nursing students using Nursingprepexams’s science-backend flashcards, practice tests and expert solutions to improve their grades and reach their goals.

Sign Up Now
learning