Pathophysiology ( University of Texas)
Total Questions : 51
Showing 25 questions, Sign in for moreA nurse has identified a fluid volume deficit in the patient who has suffered prolonged vomiting and diarrhea. Which assessment data is most important in identifying that the patient may be developing prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI)?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Urine specific gravity of 1.029 indicates concentrated urine, which is common in dehydration but not specific to prerenal AKI. It reflects the kidney’s ability to concentrate urine in response to fluid deficit.
Choice B rationale
BUN of 28 mg/dL can indicate dehydration or renal impairment. However, it is not as specific as creatinine in diagnosing prerenal AKI. BUN can be elevated due to other factors like high protein intake or gastrointestinal bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Creatinine of 2.4 mg/dL is a critical indicator of kidney function. Elevated creatinine levels are more specific to renal impairment, including prerenal AKI, as they reflect the kidney’s ability to filter waste products.
Choice D rationale
Dry mucous membranes are a sign of dehydration but are not specific to prerenal AKI. They indicate fluid volume deficit but do not directly reflect kidney function.
What is the significance of elevated serum levels of troponin?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Elevated serum levels of troponin indicate cardiac cellular injury or death. Troponin is a protein released into the bloodstream when heart muscle cells are damaged, such as during a myocardial infarction.
Choice B rationale
Sustained glycogenolysis does not cause elevated troponin levels. Glycogenolysis is the breakdown of glycogen to glucose, primarily occurring in the liver and muscles, not related to troponin release.
Choice C rationale
Acute tubular necrosis does not elevate troponin levels. This condition affects the renal tubules and is typically indicated by elevated creatinine and BUN levels.
Choice D rationale
Troponin is not an acute phase reactant. Acute phase reactants are proteins whose levels change in response to inflammation, such as C-reactive protein (CRP), not troponin.
Which infection control measure, by the nurse, reduces the potential spread of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Wearing an N95 mask is appropriate for airborne precautions, such as tuberculosis, but not specifically for MRSA, which requires contact precautions.
Choice B rationale
Wearing a facemask is suitable for droplet precautions, such as influenza, but MRSA is primarily spread through direct contact, not droplets.
Choice C rationale
Using a separate disposable blood pressure cuff for patients with draining wounds helps prevent the spread of MRSA. MRSA can be transmitted via contaminated medical equipment.
Choice D rationale
Strict hand washing measures are essential but should be performed more frequently than once every 8-hour shift. Hand hygiene should be practiced before and after patient contact.
A nurse is assessing a client with a temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) and notes a red, swollen area on the client’s leg. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cellulitis is characterized by a red, swollen, and warm area on the skin, often accompanied by fever. It is a bacterial infection of the skin and underlying tissues.
Choice B rationale
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) typically presents with swelling, pain, and warmth in the affected leg but not redness and fever as primary symptoms.
Choice C rationale
Osteomyelitis involves infection of the bone, presenting with localized pain, swelling, and fever, but not typically a red, swollen area on the skin.
Choice D rationale
Gout causes joint pain, swelling, and redness, usually in the big toe, but not a red, swollen area on the leg.
A nurse is caring for a client with a temperature of 39°C (102.2°F) who presents with a stiff neck and photophobia. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Meningitis presents with fever, stiff neck, and photophobia. It is an inflammation of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord, often caused by infection.
Choice B rationale
Encephalitis involves inflammation of the brain itself, presenting with fever, headache, and altered mental status, but not specifically photophobia.
Choice C rationale
Migraine can cause photophobia and headache but is not typically associated with fever and stiff neck.
Choice D rationale
Sinusitis can cause fever and headache but not typically photophobia and stiff neck.
A registered nurse (RN) would expect to find which sign and symptom (S&S) in the patient whose blood glucose level is 43 mg/dL?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Increased thirst is a symptom of hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. It occurs when high blood sugar levels cause dehydration.
Choice B rationale
Increased appetite can occur in hypoglycemia but is not as specific as other symptoms like slurred speech.
Choice C rationale
Slurred speech is a common symptom of hypoglycemia, indicating that the brain is not receiving enough glucose to function properly.
Choice D rationale
Polyuria is a symptom of hyperglycemia, where excess glucose in the blood leads to increased urine production.
A nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who presents with hyperkalemia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate helps to lower potassium levels by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines. However, it is not the first intervention because it takes time to work and does not address the immediate risk of cardiac arrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia.
Choice B rationale
Monitoring the client’s cardiac rhythm is the first intervention because hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Continuous cardiac monitoring allows for the early detection and treatment of these arrhythmias, which is crucial for the client’s safety.
Choice C rationale
Restricting dietary potassium intake is an important long-term management strategy for hyperkalemia, especially in clients with chronic kidney disease. However, it does not address the immediate risk of cardiac arrhythmias and is not the first intervention.
Choice D rationale
Preparing the client for hemodialysis is a definitive treatment for hyperkalemia, especially in clients with chronic kidney disease. However, it is not the first intervention because it takes time to arrange and initiate dialysis. Immediate cardiac monitoring is necessary to manage the acute risk of arrhythmias.
A patient has been told that the recent changes in her facial features are due to a hormonal pathology called myxedema. Her nurse’s explanation will be based on understanding that myxedema is:
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cerebral edema is the swelling of the brain due to fluid accumulation, which can occur after excessive alcohol consumption. However, it is not related to myxedema, which is a condition associated with severe hypothyroidism.
Choice B rationale
The deposit of fatty tissue is associated with conditions like hyperaldosteronism, where there is an excess production of aldosterone. This condition does not cause the characteristic skin changes seen in myxedema.
Choice C rationale
Proliferation of tissue behind the eyes, known as exophthalmos, is common in hyperthyroidism, particularly in Graves’ disease. Myxedema, on the other hand, is related to severe hypothyroidism and involves different pathophysiological mechanisms.
Choice D rationale
Myxedema is characterized by the accumulation of mucopolysaccharides in the skin and other tissues, leading to swelling and thickening of the skin. This condition is a result of severe hypothyroidism and can lead to a myxedema crisis if left untreated.
A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a severe headache and blurred vision. Which of the following findings would indicate a hypertensive crisis?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A blood pressure reading of 180/120 mmHg or higher is indicative of a hypertensive crisis. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent damage to vital organs such as the heart, kidneys, and brain.
Choice B rationale
A heart rate of 90 beats per minute is within the normal range and does not indicate a hypertensive crisis. While it is important to monitor heart rate, it is not a definitive sign of a hypertensive emergency.
Choice C rationale
A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute is within the normal range and does not indicate a hypertensive crisis. Respiratory rate alone is not a reliable indicator of hypertensive emergencies.
Choice D rationale
A temperature of 37°C (98.6°F) is normal and does not indicate a hypertensive crisis. Body temperature is not a primary indicator of hypertensive emergencies.
Which individual is suffering from the effects of acute coronary syndrome (ACS)?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hyperkalemia can cause weakness and fatigue, but it is not directly related to acute coronary syndrome (ACS). ACS is primarily associated with chest pain and other cardiac symptoms.
Choice B rationale
Experiencing chest pain when climbing a flight of stairs may indicate stable angina, which is a form of chronic coronary artery disease. However, it does not meet the criteria for ACS, which involves more severe and persistent symptoms.
Choice C rationale
Persistent and severe chest pain when at rest is a hallmark symptom of acute coronary syndrome (ACS). This condition requires immediate medical attention as it can lead to myocardial infarction (heart attack) or other serious complications.
Choice D rationale
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) is a symptom of heart failure, not acute coronary syndrome (ACS). While heart failure can coexist with ACS, PND alone does not indicate ACS4.
A registered nurse (RN) is providing strategies for “better breathing” to a patient with emphysema. Successful teaching of this topic would be identified when the patient states that he will:
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The tripod position helps to improve breathing by allowing the diaphragm to expand more effectively. This position reduces the work of breathing and helps to increase lung capacity, which is beneficial for patients with emphysema.
Choice B rationale
Pursed lip breathing is a technique that helps to keep the airways open longer, allowing more air to escape and reducing the work of breathing. This method helps to improve ventilation and oxygenation in patients with emphysema.
Choice C rationale
Staying current with yearly vaccinations is important for overall health, but it is not a specific strategy for better breathing in emphysema patients. Vaccinations help prevent respiratory infections, which can exacerbate emphysema symptoms.
Choice D rationale
Taking an antihistamine every day is not a recommended strategy for better breathing in emphysema patients. Antihistamines are typically used to treat allergies and may have side effects that could worsen breathing difficulties.
Choice E rationale
Inhaling slowly and deeply helps to maximize lung expansion and improve oxygenation. This technique can help to reduce shortness of breath and improve overall breathing efficiency in patients with emphysema.
Choice F rationale
Sleeping with 2 pillows to prop oneself up helps to reduce the work of breathing by preventing the diaphragm from being compressed. This position can help to improve breathing and reduce shortness of breath during sleep.
Choice G rationale
Measuring peak flow is a useful tool for monitoring lung function, but it is not a specific strategy for better breathing in emphysema patients. Peak flow measurements can help to track the progression of the disease and adjust treatment plans accordingly.
Choice H rationale
Taking a leukotriene inhibitor every day is not a recommended strategy for better breathing in emphysema patients. Leukotriene inhibitors are typically used to treat asthma and may not be effective for emphysema.
A nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings would indicate the need for immediate intervention?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute indicates tachypnea, which is a sign of respiratory distress. Immediate intervention is needed to address the underlying cause and prevent further deterioration of the patient’s condition.
Choice B rationale
A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) indicates a fever, which may suggest an infection. While this requires medical attention, it is not as immediately critical as respiratory distress.
Choice C rationale
A blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg is considered high, but it does not indicate an immediate need for intervention in the context of COPD. Hypertension should be managed, but it is not an acute emergency.
Choice D rationale
A heart rate of 90 beats per minute is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Monitoring the patient’s heart rate is important, but it is not an urgent concern in this scenario.
A nurse is caring for a client with congestive heart failure (CHF). Which of the following symptoms would indicate worsening of the condition?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Increased shortness of breath is a key symptom of worsening congestive heart failure (CHF). It indicates that the heart is not effectively pumping blood, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs and increased respiratory effort.
Choice B rationale
A temperature of 37°C (98.6°F) is within the normal range and does not indicate worsening CHF. Monitoring the patient’s temperature is important, but it is not a sign of CHF exacerbation.
Choice C rationale
A blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg is within the normal range and does not indicate worsening CHF. Blood pressure should be monitored, but this reading does not suggest an acute issue.
Choice D rationale
Occasional dizziness can be a symptom of many conditions, including CHF, but it is not as specific or critical as increased shortness of breath. It should be monitored, but it does not indicate an immediate worsening of CHF.
After receiving a vaccination for a communicable disease, the patient was asked to return in 2 to 3 weeks to get an antibody titer and asks why blood testing can’t be done immediately. How should the RN (registered nurse) respond?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
It takes about 14 days to develop antibodies and immunity to the disease after vaccine administration. This is why the patient is asked to return in 2 to 3 weeks for an antibody titer. The immune system needs time to respond to the vaccine and produce detectable levels of antibodies.
Choice B rationale
The laboratory running out of blood specimen tubes is not a valid reason for delaying the antibody titer. This choice does not provide an accurate explanation for the patient.
Choice C rationale
It takes about 14 days to develop antibodies, not antigens, and immunity to the disease after vaccine administration. This choice contains incorrect information about the immune response.
Choice D rationale
After receiving the vaccine, the patient is not likely to transmit the communicable disease to the laboratory. This choice does not provide a valid reason for delaying the antibody titer.
A goiter is often associated with:
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hypocortisolism, also known as Addison’s disease, is characterized by insufficient production of cortisol by the adrenal glands. It does not typically cause goiter, which is an enlargement of the thyroid gland due to various causes such as iodine deficiency, autoimmune diseases, or nodules.
Choice B rationale
Hyperinsulinemia refers to an excess level of insulin in the blood, often associated with insulin resistance and type 2 diabetes. It is not related to the development of goiter.
Choice C rationale
Iodide deficiency is a common cause of goiter. The thyroid gland requires iodine to produce thyroid hormones. When there is a deficiency, the gland enlarges in an attempt to capture more iodine from the bloodstream.
Choice D rationale
Azotemia is an elevation of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels, typically due to kidney dysfunction. It is not associated with the development of goiter.
Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to find during their assessment of a patient with right heart failure (RHF)?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Enlarged liver (hepatomegaly) and peripheral edema are common clinical manifestations of right heart failure (RHF). RHF leads to congestion of systemic circulation, causing fluid accumulation in the liver and peripheral tissues.
Choice B rationale
Crackles in the lungs are more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid backs up into the pulmonary circulation, leading to pulmonary edema.
Choice C rationale
A dry hacking cough is not a typical symptom of right heart failure. It is more commonly associated with respiratory conditions such as asthma or bronchitis.
Choice D rationale
Altered mentation with pinpoint pupils is not a characteristic of right heart failure. These symptoms are more indicative of neurological conditions or opioid overdose.
A nurse is caring for a client with a temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) and a heart rate of 120 beats per minute. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Sepsis is a systemic inflammatory response to infection, often characterized by fever (temperature of 38°C or higher) and tachycardia (heart rate of 120 beats per minute or higher). These symptoms indicate the body’s response to a severe infection.
Choice B rationale
Hypovolemic shock is caused by significant fluid loss, leading to decreased blood volume and perfusion. It typically presents with hypotension and tachycardia, but not necessarily fever.
Choice C rationale
Myocardial infarction (heart attack) is characterized by chest pain, shortness of breath, and other symptoms, but fever and tachycardia are not primary indicators.
Choice D rationale
Pulmonary embolism involves a blockage in the pulmonary arteries, leading to symptoms such as sudden shortness of breath, chest pain, and rapid heart rate, but not typically fever.
A nurse is assessing a client with a temperature of 39°C (102.2°F) and a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Septic shock is a severe infection leading to systemic inflammation, characterized by high fever (39°C), low blood pressure (90/60 mmHg), and signs of organ dysfunction. It is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
Choice B rationale
Cardiogenic shock is caused by the heart’s inability to pump blood effectively, leading to hypotension and signs of poor perfusion, but not necessarily high fever.
Choice C rationale
Neurogenic shock results from a disruption in the autonomic pathways, leading to hypotension and bradycardia, but not high fever.
Choice D rationale
Anaphylactic shock is a severe allergic reaction causing hypotension, respiratory distress, and other symptoms, but not typically high fever.
A nurse is caring for a client with a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is characterized by severe hypoxemia and respiratory distress, often requiring mechanical ventilation. It is not typically associated with a mild fever and increased respiratory rate.
Choice B rationale
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a chronic condition characterized by airflow limitation and respiratory symptoms, but not typically associated with a mild fever.
Choice C rationale
Pulmonary edema involves fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to respiratory distress and hypoxemia, but not typically associated with a mild fever.
Choice D rationale
Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs causing fever (37.5°C), increased respiratory rate (28 breaths per minute), and other respiratory symptoms. It is the most likely condition given the symptoms.
A nurse is assessing a client with a temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F) and a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm³. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Bacterial infection often leads to an elevated white blood cell count (15,000/mm³) and fever (38.5°C). The body’s immune response to bacterial pathogens results in these clinical manifestations.
Choice B rationale
Viral infections can cause fever, but they typically do not lead to a significant increase in white blood cell count.
Choice C rationale
Fungal infections can cause fever and elevated white blood cell count, but they are less common and usually occur in immunocompromised individuals.
Choice D rationale
Parasitic infections can cause fever and elevated white blood cell count, but they are less common and usually present with other specific symptoms.
A nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who has elevated intracranial pressure (ICP). While assessing the client, the nurse hears crackles in the lungs and notes a decrease in urine output. Which complication has the client likely developed?
Explanation
ChoiceArationale
Post-renalacute kidneyinjury(AKI)iscausedbyobstructionofurineflow,leadingto decreased urine output, but it does not typically cause crackles in the lungs.
ChoiceBrationale
Diabetesinsipidus(DI)ischaracterizedbyexcessiveurinationandthirstduetoadeficiencyof antidiuretic hormone (ADH), but it does not cause crackles in the lungs.
ChoiceCrationale
Syndromeofinappropriateantidiuretichormone(SIADH)involvesexcessivereleaseofADH, leading to water retention and hyponatremia, but it does not cause crackles in the lungs.
ChoiceDrationale
Congestiveheartfailure(CHF)canleadtofluidaccumulationinthelungs(crackles)and decreased urine output due to poor cardiac function and renal perfusion.
A nurse is assessing a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings is most concerning?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not necessarily concerning for a client with COPD. COPD patients often have higher respiratory rates due to their chronic lung condition.
Choice B rationale
A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) indicates a fever, which could be a sign of infection. However, it is not the most concerning finding in a COPD patient.
Choice C rationale
A pulse oximetry reading of 88% is concerning because it indicates hypoxemia. COPD patients often have lower oxygen levels, but a reading below 90% is worrisome and may require supplemental oxygen or other interventions.
Choice D rationale
A blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg is elevated but not immediately concerning in the context of COPD. It is important to monitor, but it is not the most critical finding.
A nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory result would the nurse expect to find elevated?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Serum amylase is typically elevated in acute pancreatitis. It is one of the key diagnostic markers for this condition.
Choice B rationale
Serum potassium levels are not typically elevated in acute pancreatitis. Potassium levels are more commonly associated with kidney function and electrolyte balance.
Choice C rationale
Serum calcium levels are usually decreased, not elevated, in acute pancreatitis. Hypocalcemia can occur due to fat saponification in the pancreas.
Choice D rationale
Serum sodium levels are not typically elevated in acute pancreatitis. Sodium levels are more related to overall fluid balance and kidney function.
A nurse is providing education to a client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Checking blood sugar levels before each meal is a good practice for managing diabetes and does not indicate a need for further teaching.
Choice B rationale
Skipping medication if blood sugar is normal indicates a misunderstanding of diabetes management. Medications should be taken as prescribed to maintain consistent blood sugar levels.
Choice C rationale
Following a balanced diet and exercising regularly are important components of diabetes management and do not indicate a need for further teaching.
Choice D rationale
Monitoring feet for cuts or sores is crucial for diabetes management to prevent complications like infections and ulcers.
A nurse is assessing a client with suspected meningitis. Which of the following signs would be most indicative of meningitis?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A positive Brudzinski’s sign is indicative of meningitis. It involves involuntary lifting of the legs when the neck is flexed, suggesting meningeal irritation.
Choice B rationale
A positive Babinski’s sign indicates central nervous system pathology but is not specific to meningitis. It involves dorsiflexion of the big toe when the sole of the foot is stimulated.
Choice C rationale
A positive Romberg’s sign indicates issues with proprioception and balance but is not specific to meningitis. It involves swaying or falling when standing with eyes closed.
Choice D rationale
A positive Murphy’s sign indicates gallbladder inflammation (cholecystitis) and is not related to meningitis. It involves pain on palpation of the right upper quadrant during inspiration.
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