Postpartum Management

Total Questions : 5

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Question 1:

A nurse is caring for a client who has postpartum pre-eclampsia.

Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B and E. The nurse should administer magnesium sulfate as prescribed and provide health education and counselling on the signs and symptoms of postpartum pre-eclampsia.

Choice A is wrong because the nurse should monitor blood pressure more frequently than every 4 hours, preferably every 15 minutes until stable, then every hour.

Choice C is wrong because the nurse should avoid early ambulation and mobilization, as they can increase blood pressure and risk of seizures.

Choice D is wrong because breastfeeding is not contraindicated in postpartum pre-eclampsia, unless the mother is taking antihypertensive medication that is not compatible with breastfeeding.

Postpartum pre-eclampsia is a rare condition that occurs when a woman has high blood pressure and protein in her urine or other signs of organ damage after giving birth.It can lead to serious complications such as seizures, stroke, kidney failure, and death if not treated promptly.Normal blood pressure ranges are less than 120/80 mm Hg for systolic and diastolic pressures respectively.


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Question 2:

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has postpartum pre-eclampsia.

Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Explanation

Serum uric acid of 8 mg/dL.This is because postpartum preeclampsia is a condition that causes high blood pressure and excess protein in the urine after childbirth.It can also affect other organs such as the liver and kidneys.One of the signs of kidney impairment is elevated serum uric acid levels.Normal serum uric acid levels range from 2.4 to 6 mg/dL for women.

Choice A is wrong because platelet count of 150,000/mm3 is within the normal range of 150,000 to 450,000/mm3.

Platelets are the cells that help blood clot.A low platelet count can indicate a risk of bleeding complications.

Choice B is wrong because serum creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL is within the normal range of 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dL for women.

Creatinine is a waste product that is filtered by the kidneys.A high serum creatinine level can indicate kidney dysfunction.

Choice D is wrong because serum albumin of 4 g/dL is within the normal range of 3.4 to 5.4 g/dL.

Albumin is a protein that helps regulate fluid balance in the body.A low serum albumin level can indicate liver damage or fluid leakage from blood vessels.


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Question 3:

A nurse is teaching a client who has postpartum pre-eclampsia about the potential effects of this condition on future pregnancies.

Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Explanation

“I will have a higher risk of having pre-eclampsia or eclampsia in my next pregnancy.” This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because postpartum pre-eclampsia is a rare condition that occurs when you have high blood pressure and excess protein in your urine soon after childbirth.It increases the risk of developing preeclampsia or gestational hypertension in subsequent pregnancies.Preeclampsia is a serious condition of high blood pressure during pregnancy that can cause complications for the mother and the baby.

Choice A is wrong because aspirin is not a treatment for postpartum pre-eclampsia, but a preventive measure for preeclampsia during pregnancy in women who are at high risk for it.Aspirin may reduce the risk of preeclampsia and related complications by inhibiting platelet aggregation and inflammation.However, aspirin may not work for women with chronic hypertension.

Choice B is wrong because postpartum pre-eclampsia does not affect the risk of developing gestational diabetes in the next pregnancy.

Gestational diabetes is a condition where the blood sugar level becomes too high during pregnancy due to hormonal changes and insulin resistance.

The risk factors for gestational diabetes include obesity, family history of diabetes, previous history of gestational diabetes, polycystic ovary syndrome, and certain ethnic groups.

Choice C is wrong because postpartum pre-eclampsia does not require a cesarean delivery for the next pregnancy.

Cesarean delivery is a surgical procedure


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Question 4:

A nurse is assessing a client who has postpartum pre-eclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously.

Which of the following findings should alert the nurse to suspect magnesium toxicity?

Explanation

Respiratory rate of 10/min.This is because a decreased respiratory rate is a sign of magnesium toxicity, which can occur when a client receives magnesium sulfate intravenously to treat pre-eclampsia.Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system and affect the respiratory center in the brain.

Choice B is wrong because urine output of 40 mL/hour is normal for a postpartum client and does not indicate magnesium toxicity.

Choice C is wrong because deep tendon reflexes of 2+ are normal and do not indicate magnesium toxicity.Magnesium toxicity can cause loss of deep tendon reflexes or hyporeflexia.

Choice D is wrong because serum magnesium level of 6 mg/dL is within the therapeutic range of 4 to 7 mg/dL for a client receiving magnesium sulfate.Magnesium toxicity can occur when the serum magnesium level exceeds 8 mg/dL.


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Question 5:

A nurse is preparing to administer an antihypertensive medication to a client who has postpartum pre-eclampsia.

Which of the following medications should the nurse have available as an antidote in case of an adverse reaction?

Explanation

Sodium nitroprusside.

This is an antihypertensive medication that can lower blood pressure rapidly and can cause hypotension, cyanide toxicity, or thiocyanate toxicity as adverse reactions.The antidote for sodium nitroprusside toxicity is sodium thiosulfate, which can be administered intravenously.

Choice A is wrong because naloxone is an antidote for opioid overdose, not antihypertensive medication.

Choice B is wrong because flumazenil is an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose, not antihypertensive medication.

Choice D is wrong because sodium bicarbonate is an antidote for acidosis, not antihypertensive medication.


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