Pulmonary Embolism

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Question 1: A nurse is providing education to a client who has been diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. The client asks, "What exactly is a pulmonary embolism?" How should the nurse respond?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. This description is more related to coronary artery blockages, not pulmonary embolism.

B) Incorrect. This describes a different lung condition called pneumonia, not pulmonary embolism.

C) Correct. A pulmonary embolism is a blockage in the pulmonary arteries, typically caused by a blood clot traveling from elsewhere in the body.

D) Incorrect. This describes a characteristic of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), not pulmonary embolism.


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Question 2: A client recently had surgery and is concerned about the risk of developing a pulmonary embolism. What risk factors should the nurse discuss with the client?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Surgery does increase the risk of pulmonary embolism, especially when accompanied by immobility.

B) Correct. Prolonged immobility, birth control pills, and obesity are known risk factors for post-surgery pulmonary embolism.

C) Incorrect. While smoking and caffeine intake can impact lung health, they are not the primary risk factors for post-surgery pulmonary embolism.

D) Incorrect. While a family history of clotting disorders can contribute to the risk, it is not a common risk factor discussed in the context of post-surgery pulmonary embolism.


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Question 3: A nurse is explaining to a client why pulmonary embolism is considered a life-threatening condition. What aspect of pulmonary embolism should the nurse emphasize?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. While pulmonary embolism can strain the heart, it is primarily a result of disrupted blood flow to the lungs, not heart failure.

B) Incorrect. While pulmonary embolism can impact lung function, it does so through blocked blood flow rather than severe inflammation.

C) Correct. The most critical aspect of pulmonary embolism is the blockage of blood flow to the lungs, which can lead to severe oxygen deprivation and be fatal.

D) Incorrect. The collapse of bronchial tubes is not a characteristic of pulmonary embolism.


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Question 4: A client asks a nurse if there are any lifestyle changes they can make to reduce the risk of developing a pulmonary embolism. What advice should the nurse provide?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. High-intensity exercise may not necessarily reduce the risk and could potentially increase the risk if it leads to prolonged immobility afterward.

B) Correct. Maintaining a healthy weight, regular physical activity, and avoiding smoking are known lifestyle factors that can reduce the risk of pulmonary embolism.

C) Incorrect. Lifestyle changes, as mentioned, can play a role in prevention.

D) Incorrect. While stress reduction is beneficial for overall health, it is not specifically linked to the prevention of pulmonary embolism.


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Question 5: A nurse is educating a client about the signs and symptoms of a pulmonary embolism. Which symptom should the nurse emphasize as a common and concerning presentation of pulmonary embolism?

Explanation

A) Correct. Chest pain that worsens with deep breaths (pleuritic chest pain) is a common and concerning symptom of pulmonary embolism.

B) Incorrect. Persistent cough with yellow-green mucus production is not a typical symptom of pulmonary embolism.

C) Incorrect. Lightheadedness and dizziness can be associated with pulmonary embolism but are less specific symptoms.

D) Incorrect. Swelling and redness in the lower legs are more indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can sometimes lead to pulmonary embolism but are not direct symptoms of pulmonary embolism.


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Question 6: A nurse is teaching a client about the risk factors for pulmonary embolism. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the risk factors?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Prolonged sitting during travel, especially on long flights, can increase the risk of pulmonary embolism due to immobility.

B) Incorrect. Long-term anticoagulant therapy is often prescribed to reduce the risk of pulmonary embolism, not increase it.

C) Correct. Prolonged immobility, such as sitting for long hours or bed rest, is a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism.

D) Incorrect. Recent surgery, trauma, or hospitalization can increase the risk of developing pulmonary embolism due to factors such as immobility and altered blood clotting.


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Question 7: A client asks a nurse about the process that leads to a pulmonary embolism. How should the nurse explain the pathophysiology of pulmonary embolism?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. This description is more aligned with a lung infection, such as pneumonia, not pulmonary embolism.

B) Correct. Pulmonary embolism is typically caused by a blood clot that travels to the lungs and obstructs the pulmonary arteries.

C) Incorrect. Prolonged exposure to environmental toxins is not the primary cause of pulmonary embolism.

D) Incorrect. Chronic inflammation in the airways is characteristic of conditions like chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) but not pulmonary embolism.


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Question 8: A nurse is explaining the risk factors for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) to a client. The client asks about the connection between DVT and pulmonary embolism. What should the nurse tell the client?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. DVT and pulmonary embolism are related conditions, and they share risk factors.

B) Correct. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the legs can lead to pulmonary embolism if a clot dislodges and travels to the lungs.

C) Incorrect. DVT and pulmonary embolism are distinct conditions, although they are closely related due to their connection through blood clots.

D) Incorrect. DVT is not a more severe form of pulmonary embolism; they are separate but related conditions.


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Question 9: A client recovering from major surgery asks a nurse about the risk of developing a pulmonary embolism postoperatively. What should the nurse include in the explanation of post-surgery risk factors?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. While surgical trauma can be a risk factor, it is not solely associated with incisions and scars.

B) Incorrect. The risk of pulmonary embolism after surgery is not low, and specific factors do contribute to the risk.

C) Correct. Prolonged immobility, surgical trauma, and changes in blood clotting are common risk factors for post-surgery pulmonary embolism.

D) Incorrect. Excessive fluid intake during recovery is not a primary risk factor for post-surgery pulmonary embolism.


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Question 10: A nurse is educating a client on how a pulmonary embolism can impact lung function. What should the nurse emphasize regarding the physiological effects?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Pulmonary embolism does not directly affect the bronchial tubes or cause airway constriction.

B) Incorrect. While inflammation can occur as a response to pulmonary embolism, its primary impact is on blood flow, not the alveoli.

C) Correct. The main effect of pulmonary embolism is the disruption of blood flow to lung tissue, reducing oxygen supply.

D) Incorrect. Excessive mucus production is not a characteristic effect of pulmonary embolism.


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Question 11: A nurse is educating a client about the risk factors for pulmonary embolism. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the risk factors?

Explanation

A) Correct. Prolonged immobility and a sedentary lifestyle are significant risk factors for pulmonary embolism.

B) Incorrect. Environmental pollutants and toxins are not primary causes of pulmonary embolism.

C) Incorrect. While healthy individuals can also develop pulmonary embolism, various factors contribute to its risk.

D) Incorrect. Lifestyle factors, as well as medical conditions, can contribute to the risk of pulmonary embolism.


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Question 12: A client inquires about the role of surgery in the development of pulmonary embolism. What should the nurse explain regarding this risk factor?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Surgery, especially major procedures, can increase the risk of pulmonary embolism.

B) Incorrect. The risk of pulmonary embolism is often higher after major surgeries, not limited to minor procedures.

C) Correct. Major surgeries and procedures carry a higher risk of pulmonary embolism due to factors like immobility and surgical trauma.

D) Incorrect. While genetics can play a role in clotting disorders, surgery remains a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism.


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Question 13: A nurse is discussing the risk factors for pulmonary embolism with a client. The client asks if age plays a role in this condition. How should the nurse respond?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Age can influence the risk of pulmonary embolism, and it tends to increase with age.

B) Incorrect. While younger individuals can develop pulmonary embolism, the risk generally rises with age.

C) Correct. Pulmonary embolism risk is higher in older individuals, particularly those over 60.

D) Incorrect. Age is one of many factors that contribute to the risk of pulmonary embolism.


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Question 14: A nurse is teaching a client about the risk factors for pulmonary embolism. The client asks about the connection between pregnancy and pulmonary embolism risk. How should the nurse respond?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Pregnancy can increase the risk of pulmonary embolism, especially during specific periods.

B) Correct. Pregnancy is a known risk factor for pulmonary embolism due to hormonal changes, increased clotting factors, and reduced mobility during pregnancy.

C) Incorrect. While the risk may be higher during the postpartum period, it can also occur during pregnancy.

D) Incorrect. While genetics can play a role, other factors associated with pregnancy contribute to the risk of pulmonary embolism.


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Question 15: A client with a history of smoking asks the nurse about the relationship between smoking and the risk of pulmonary embolism. How should the nurse explain this relationship?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Smoking can influence the risk of pulmonary embolism, typically increasing it.

B) Incorrect. Smoking is generally associated with increased pulmonary embolism risk, not reduced risk.

C) Correct. Smoking can damage blood vessels and promote clot formation, contributing to the risk of

pulmonary embolism.

D) Incorrect. Both the duration and amount of smoking can impact pulmonary embolism risk.


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Question 16: A nurse is assessing a client suspected of having a pulmonary embolism. Which symptom reported by the client is most indicative of this condition?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Fatigue and weakness can be nonspecific symptoms and are not specific to pulmonary embolism.

B) Incorrect. While cough and sore throat can be symptoms of respiratory conditions, they are not specific to pulmonary embolism.

C) Correct. Sharp, stabbing chest pain that worsens with deep breaths, known as pleuritic chest pain, is a classic symptom of pulmonary embolism.

D) Incorrect. Increased appetite and weight gain are not typically associated with pulmonary embolism and may suggest other conditions.


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Question 17: A client with a history of pulmonary embolism reports experiencing sudden shortness of breath, lightheadedness, and rapid heart rate. Which term best describes this clinical presentation?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Hemoptysis refers to coughing up blood, which is not described in the client's symptoms.

B) Incorrect. Orthopnea is the inability to breathe comfortably when lying flat and is not the best description of the client's symptoms.

C) Incorrect. Syncope refers to fainting or loss of consciousness, which is not the primary symptom described.

D) Correct. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, along with lightheadedness and rapid heart rate, is a common presentation of pulmonary embolism.


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Question 18: A client suspected of having a pulmonary embolism complains of sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse auscultates the client's chest and notes crackling sounds during inspiration. Which term describes these crackling sounds?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Wheezing is a high-pitched whistling sound that occurs during expiration and is not associated with crackling sounds.

B) Incorrect. Rhonchi are continuous low-pitched sounds heard during both inspiration and expiration, usually due to airway obstruction.

C) Incorrect. Stridor is a high-pitched, crowing sound that occurs during inspiration and suggests upper airway obstruction.

D) Correct. Rales, also known as crackles, are crackling or popping sounds heard during inspiration and can be indicative of fluid or inflammation in the lungs, which can occur with pulmonary embolism.


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Question 19: A nurse is assessing a client with suspected pulmonary embolism. The client reports feeling a sudden sense of impending doom and restlessness. Which term best describes this psychological symptom?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Anhedonia refers to the inability to experience pleasure and is not the best description of the client's symptom.

B) Incorrect. Euphoria is a state of intense happiness or elation, which is not consistent with the client's report.

C) Correct. The client's feeling of impending doom and restlessness is characteristic of anxiety, which can occur in response to a pulmonary embolism.

D) Incorrect. Apathy refers to a lack of interest or emotion and does not describe the client's state of restlessness and fear.


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Question 20: A nurse is caring for a client with suspected pulmonary embolism. The client's oxygen saturation drops significantly, and the nurse observes cyanosis of the lips and nail beds. Which term best describes this clinical finding?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Jaundice is a yellowing of the skin and sclera due to elevated bilirubin levels, which is not described in the client's symptoms.

B) Incorrect. Pallor refers to paleness of the skin, which is not consistent with the client's cyanosis.

C) Incorrect. Erythema refers to redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, which is not the best description of the client's symptoms.

D) Correct. Cyanosis is the bluish discoloration of the skin, lips, and nail beds due to decreased oxygen saturation in the blood, which is indicative of a severe oxygen deficit often seen in pulmonary embolism.


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Question 21: A nurse is caring for a client suspected of having a pulmonary embolism. Which diagnostic test is commonly used to confirm the presence of a pulmonary embolism?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Chest X-rays can show certain abnormalities but are not the primary diagnostic tool for pulmonary embolism.

B) Incorrect. Electrocardiograms (ECGs) are used to assess heart rhythm and electrical activity but are not used to diagnose pulmonary embolism.

C) Incorrect. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may be used in some cases, but CTPA is the preferred test for diagnosing pulmonary embolism.

D) Correct. Computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary embolism as it can visualize blood clots in the pulmonary arteries.


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Question 22: A client presents to the emergency department with suspected pulmonary embolism. What blood test can help assess the likelihood of pulmonary embolism and its severity?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. A complete blood count (CBC) provides information about the composition of blood cells but is not specific to pulmonary embolism.

B) Incorrect. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis helps assess oxygen and carbon dioxide levels but is not a primary test for diagnosing pulmonary embolism.

C) Correct. The D-dimer assay measures a substance released when a blood clot breaks up. Elevated D-dimer levels can suggest the presence of a blood clot, but it is not specific to pulmonary embolism.

D) Incorrect. Creatine kinase (CK) levels are used to assess muscle damage and are not a primary test for diagnosing pulmonary embolism.


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Question 23: A client with suspected pulmonary embolism is undergoing a ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan. What is the purpose of this imaging test?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Visualizing the heart's electrical activity is typically done with an electrocardiogram (ECG), not a V/Q scan.

B) Correct. A ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan is used to assess lung function and oxygenation and to detect areas of the lung where blood flow and air ventilation do not match, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism.

C) Incorrect. Measuring blood clotting time is typically done using coagulation tests such as prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).

D) Incorrect. Evaluating kidney function is not the primary purpose of a V/Q scan.


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Question 24: A nurse is preparing a client for a pulmonary angiography procedure to confirm the presence of pulmonary embolism. What should the nurse educate the client about regarding this diagnostic test?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Pulmonary angiography involves the injection of contrast dye into the pulmonary arteries, not the insertion of a scope into the lungs.

B) Correct. Remaining still during the procedure is crucial to obtain clear images, and the client should be educated about the importance of cooperation.

C) Incorrect. Allergies to contrast dye can be a concern, and the client should inform the healthcare team of any allergies to prevent potential adverse reactions.

D) Incorrect. Mild discomfort and chest pain are not common during pulmonary angiography and should not be expected. The procedure is typically done under local anesthesia, and any discomfort should be reported to the healthcare team.


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Question 25: A client is undergoing an echocardiogram as part of the diagnostic workup for suspected pulmonary embolism. What information can an echocardiogram provide in this context?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. An echocardiogram does not visualize blood clots in the pulmonary arteries; it focuses on assessing heart function and structure.

B) Correct. An echocardiogram provides valuable information about heart valve function and heart structure, helping assess the impact of a pulmonary embolism on the heart.

C) Incorrect. Measurement of arterial blood gases (ABGs) is typically performed through blood sampling, not with an echocardiogram.

D) Incorrect. Echocardiograms do not evaluate lung function and ventilation; they primarily assess cardiac function.


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Question 26: A nurse is educating a client diagnosed with pulmonary embolism about the treatment options. Which of the following interventions is a common initial treatment approach for pulmonary embolism?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Intravenous antibiotics are not typically used as the initial treatment for pulmonary embolism. Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections, not blood clots.

B) Correct. Anticoagulant therapy, such as heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin, is often the initial treatment for pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications.

C) Incorrect. Emergency surgical removal of the embolism is considered in severe cases but is not the common initial treatment approach.

D) Incorrect. Placement of a chest tube for drainage is not a standard treatment for pulmonary embolism; it is used for conditions involving pleural effusion or pneumothorax.


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Question 27: A client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism is prescribed long-term anticoagulant therapy. What medication is commonly used for long-term anticoagulation in this situation?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent, not a long-term anticoagulant, and it is typically not used as the primary treatment for pulmonary embolism.

B) Correct. Warfarin (Coumadin) is commonly used for long-term anticoagulation in individuals with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism. It helps prevent the formation of new blood clots.

C) Incorrect. Insulin is used to manage blood sugar levels in diabetes and is not a medication for anticoagulation.

D) Incorrect. Nitroglycerin is used to relieve chest pain (angina) related to heart conditions but is not an anticoagulant.


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Question 28: A nurse is caring for a client with a pulmonary embolism who is receiving tissue plasminogen activator (tP

Explanation

A) Incorrect. tPA therapy is not primarily used for pain relief but rather for clot dissolution.

B) Incorrect. While improving lung function and oxygenation is a goal in treating pulmonary embolism, tPA's primary purpose is to dissolve existing blood clots.

C) Correct. tPA (tissue plasminogen activator) is a thrombolytic agent used to break down and dissolve existing blood clots in the pulmonary arteries, improving blood flow.

D) Incorrect. tPA is not used to prevent the formation of new blood clots but rather to treat existing clots.


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Question 29: A client diagnosed with pulmonary embolism is receiving oxygen therapy. What is the primary goal of oxygen therapy in this situation?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Oxygen therapy is not administered to increase heart rate but rather to improve oxygen delivery to tissues.

B) Incorrect. While oxygen therapy may help alleviate anxiety related to shortness of breath, its primary goal is to address oxygenation.

C) Correct. The primary goal of oxygen therapy in pulmonary embolism is to improve oxygen saturation and tissue oxygenation, as pulmonary embolism can lead to decreased oxygen levels in the blood.

D) Incorrect. Oxygen therapy is not used to lower blood pressure but rather to address oxygenation and tissue oxygen delivery.


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Question 30: A nurse is educating a client with a history of pulmonary embolism on lifestyle modifications to reduce the risk of recurrence. Which of the following recommendations is appropriate?

Explanation

A) Correct. Smoking cessation is an important lifestyle modification to reduce the risk of recurrent pulmonary embolism. Smoking is a risk factor for blood clot formation.

B) Incorrect. Limiting physical activity is not recommended, as moderate physical activity can be beneficial. However, strenuous activity may need to be adjusted depending on the individual's condition and treatment.

C) Incorrect. A high-sodium diet is not recommended, as excessive sodium intake can contribute to hypertension, which is a risk factor for blood clots.

D) Incorrect. Avoiding vaccinations is not relevant to the prevention of pulmonary embolism. Vaccinations are essential for preventing certain infections.


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Question 31: A nurse is educating a client with pulmonary embolism about the importance of early recognition of symptoms. Which symptom should the client be advised to report immediately?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Mild shortness of breath during activities may not be unusual, but sudden or severe shortness of breath should be reported.

B) Correct. Chest pain that worsens with deep breathing or coughing may indicate a worsening of the pulmonary embolism and should be reported immediately.

C) Incorrect. Mild swelling in the ankles is not typically a sign of a pulmonary embolism. However, severe leg swelling or pain should be evaluated.

D) Incorrect. An occasional cough with clear sputum is not necessarily a sign of a pulmonary embolism. However, if the cough becomes severe or is associated with other symptoms, it should be reported.


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Question 32: A client with a history of pulmonary embolism asks the nurse about ways to prevent future episodes. What should the nurse include in the response?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Avoiding all physical activity is not recommended. Clients should engage in appropriate physical activity, and the level of activity may be adjusted based on their condition.

B) Incorrect. A diet high in cholesterol is not a preventive measure for blood clots; in fact, it can contribute to cardiovascular risk factors.

C) Incorrect. While excessive caffeine and alcohol intake should be avoided, eliminating them completely is not a specific preventive measure for pulmonary embolism.

D) Correct. Following the healthcare provider's recommendations for anticoagulant therapy is crucial in preventing recurrent pulmonary embolism, especially in individuals with a history of the condition.


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Question 33: A nurse is caring for a client with suspected pulmonary embolism who is undergoing diagnostic testing. What diagnostic test is often used as an initial screening tool for pulmonary embolism?

Explanation

A) Correct. Computed tomography angiography (CTA) is often used as an initial screening tool for pulmonary embolism, as it provides detailed images of the pulmonary arteries.

B) Incorrect. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may be used in some cases but is less commonly employed as an initial screening tool for pulmonary embolism.

C) Incorrect. Chest X-ray is typically not sensitive enough to diagnose pulmonary embolism directly but may show other related findings, such as an enlarged heart or lung abnormalities.

D) Incorrect. Electrocardiogram (ECG) may help identify signs of right heart strain or dysfunction caused by a pulmonary embolism but is not a primary diagnostic tool for detecting emboli in the pulmonary arteries.


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Question 34: A client with pulmonary embolism is prescribed an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. What is the primary purpose of an IVC filter in this situation?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. An IVC filter is not used to administer anticoagulant medications but rather to prevent blood clots from reaching the pulmonary circulation.

B) Incorrect. IVC filters are not used to prevent airway obstruction.

C) Correct. The primary purpose of an IVC filter is to capture and prevent blood clots from reaching the pulmonary circulation, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism.

D) Incorrect. IVC filters are not used to deliver oxygen directly to the lungs but rather to prevent emboli from reaching the lungs.


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Question 35: A client with pulmonary embolism is experiencing severe shortness of breath. Which nursing intervention takes priority in this situation?

Explanation

A) Incorrect. While pain management is important, providing supplemental oxygen to address severe shortness of breath takes priority.

B) Incorrect. Initiating anticoagulant therapy is essential but may take some time to have an effect. Oxygen therapy should be provided immediately to address the client's oxygenation.

C) Correct. Providing supplemental oxygen is the priority intervention for a client with severe

shortness of breath to ensure adequate oxygenation.

D) Incorrect. Encouraging ambulation is not appropriate in a client with severe shortness of breath. Stabilizing the client's oxygenation and condition is the immediate concern.


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