Choice A reason:Raw carrots are not a good choice for a 9-month-old infant because they are also a choking hazard. Raw carrots are hard and crunchy, which can be difficult for the infant to chew and swallow. Raw carrots should be cooked until soft and cut into small pieces before offering to the infant.

Choice B reason: Unsalted popcorn is not a good choice for a 9-month-old infant because it poses a choking hazard. Popcorn is hard, dry, and irregularly shaped, which can easily get stuck in the infant's throat or airway. Popcorn should be avoided until the child is at least 4 years old.

Choice C reason: Skim milk is not a good choice for a 9-month-old infant because it does not provide enough fat and calories for their growth and development. Infants should drink breast milk or formula until they are at least 12 months old.

Choice D reason: Graham crackers are a good choice for a 9-month-old infant because they are soft, easy to chew, and provide carbohydrates and iron for their energy and growth. Graham crackers can be broken into small pieces and given to the infant as finger food.

Choice A reason: The client's creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL is within the normal range, but it does not indicate that the treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia has been effective. Creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism that is filtered by the kidneys and excreted in urine. It reflects the kidney function, not the prostate condition.

Choice B reason: The client's urine output of 35 mL/hr is below the normal range, which is 40 to 60 mL/hr. This indicates that the client may have dehydration, kidney impairment, or urinary retention, which are complications of benign prostatic hyperplasia. A low urine output does not indicate that the treatment has been effective.

Choice C reason: The client's stool color and consistency are not related to the treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia. Stool characteristics depend on various factors, such as diet, medication, and bowel function. A soft, brown stool does not indicate that the treatment has been effective.

Choice D reason: The client's ability to urinate without straining is a sign that the treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia has been effective. Benign prostatic hyperplasia is a condition in which the prostate gland enlarges and compresses the urethra, causing difficulty in urination. A treatment that reduces the size of the prostate or relaxes the bladder neck muscles can improve the urine flow and reduce the straining.

Choice A reason: Hamburger is not a suitable food item for a lacto-vegetarian diet because it is made from ground beef, which is an animal product. A lacto-vegetarian diet excludes meat, poultry, fish, and eggs, but allows dairy products.

Choice B reason: Cheese is a suitable food item for a lacto-vegetarian diet because it is a dairy product, which is allowed in this type of diet. Cheese provides protein, calcium, and vitamin B12 for lacto-vegetarians.

Choice C reason: Eggs are not a suitable food item for a lacto-vegetarian diet because they are an animal product. Eggs are excluded from a lacto-vegetarian diet, but they are allowed in an ovo-lacto vegetarian diet, which also includes dairy products.

Choice D reason: Shrimp is not a suitable food item for a lacto-vegetarian diet because it is a seafood product, which is an animal product. Seafood is excluded from a lacto-vegetarian diet, but it is allowed in a pescatarian diet, which also includes dairy products and eggs.

Choice A reason: Recommending a total fat intake of 12 g each day is not an appropriate action for the nurse to take because it is too low for most adults. The recommended dietary allowance (RDA. for fat is 20 to 35% of total calories per day, which translates to about 44 to 78 g of fat per day for an average adult who consumes 2,000 calories per day.

Choice B reason: Referring the client to a weight-loss support group is not an appropriate action for the nurse to take because the client does not need to lose weight. A body mass index (BMI) of 22 is within the normal range, which is 18.5 to 24.9. A weight-loss support group is more suitable for clients who have a BMI of 25 or higher, which indicates overweight or obesity.

Choice C reason: Advising the client to add 500 calories per day to the diet is not an appropriate action for the nurse to take because it may lead to weight gain. A client who has a BMI of 22 does not need to increase their caloric intake unless they have other medical conditions or nutritional needs that require more calories. Adding 500 calories per day to the diet can result in gaining about one pound per week, which can increase the risk of obesity and its complications.

Choice D reason: Encouraging the client to continue current daily caloric intake is an appropriate action for the nurse to take because it can help maintain a healthy weight. A client who has a BMI of 22 has a balanced energy intake and expenditure, which means that they consume enough calories to meet their metabolic needs and physical activity level. Continuing current daily caloric intake can prevent weight loss or gain and promote health and wellness.

Choice A reason: Soaking fruits in water before peeling them is not a good practice for retaining nutrients because it can cause water-soluble vitamins, such as vitamin C and B-complex vitamins, to leach out into the water. It is better to wash fruits briefly under running water and peel them as thinly as possible.

Choice B reason: Cooking vegetables for the week and reheating them at each meal is not a good practice for retaining nutrients because it can cause nutrient losses due to exposure to heat, light, air, and water. It is better to cook vegetables as close to the time of consumption as possible and use minimal water and cooking time.

Choice C reason: Boiling vegetables on the stove until they are soft is not a good practice for retaining nutrients because it can cause significant nutrient losses due to high temperature and long cooking time. It is better to steam, microwave, or stir-fry vegetables until they are crisp-tender and retain their color and texture.

Choice D reason: Keeping ripe fruits refrigerated until eating them is a good practice for retaining nutrients because it can slow down the ripening process and prevent spoilage. Refrigeration can preserve the freshness, flavor, and nutritional value of fruits. However, some fruits, such as bananas, tomatoes, and avocados, should not be refrigerated because they can lose their quality and taste.

Choice A reason: Hot dog cut in fourths is not an appropriate food choice for toddlers because it is still a choking hazard. Hot dogs are cylindrical and firm, which can block the airway of a child. Hot dogs should be avoided or cut into thin slices and small pieces before offering to toddlers.

Choice B reason: Cooked spaghetti with sauce is an appropriate food choice for toddlers because it is soft, easy to chew, and provides carbohydrates, protein, and vitamins. Cooked spaghetti can be cut into short strands and mixed with sauce to make it more appealing and moist for toddlers.

Choice C reason: Steak cut into small pieces is not an appropriate food choice for toddlers because it is tough, dry, and hard to chew. Steak can cause choking or difficulty swallowing for toddlers who have not developed their molars and chewing skills. Steak should be avoided or minced and moistened before offering to toddlers.

Choice D reason: Caramel popcorn is not an appropriate food choice for toddlers because it is sticky, sweet, and hard. Caramel popcorn can stick to the teeth and gums, causing dental caries and gum infections. Popcorn can also cause choking or aspiration for toddlers who have not mastered their swallowing reflex. Popcorn should be avoided until the child is at least 4 years old.

Choice A reason: Consuming ten percent of total calories from saturated fat is not a part of the DASH diet because it is too high for most adults. The DASH diet recommends consuming less than seven percent of total calories from saturated fat, which translates to about 16 g of saturated fat per day for an average adult who consumes 2,000 calories per day.

Choice B reason: Consuming foods that are high in calcium is a part of the DASH diet because it can help lower blood pressure by relaxing the blood vessels and reducing the force of contraction of the heart. The DASH diet recommends consuming 1,000 to 1,200 mg of calcium per day, which can be obtained from dairy products, leafy greens, beans, nuts, and fortified foods.

Choice C reason: Increasing intake of refined carbohydrates is not a part of the DASH diet because it can raise blood sugar and insulin levels, which can increase blood pressure and damage the blood vessels. The DASH diet recommends consuming 45 to 55 percent of total calories from carbohydrates, but mostly from whole grains, fruits, and vegetables, which are rich in fiber and antioxidants.

Choice D reason: Limiting sodium intake to 3,200 milligrams per day is not a part of the DASH diet because it is too high for most adults. The DASH diet recommends limiting sodium intake to 2,300 milligrams per day or less, which can help lower blood pressure by reducing fluid retention and vascular resistance.

Choice A reason: Including a high-fat food with each meal is not a good strategy for managing chronic nausea during pregnancy because it can delay gastric emptying and worsen nausea and vomiting. High-fat foods should be avoided or consumed in moderation during pregnancy.

Choice B reason: Drinking 12 ounces of water with breakfast is not a good strategy for managing chronic nausea during pregnancy because it can dilute stomach acid and trigger nausea and vomiting. Water should be consumed between meals rather than with meals during pregnancy.

Choice C reason: Eating a high-carbohydrate diet is a good strategy for managing chronic nausea during pregnancy because it can provide quick energy and prevent hypoglycemia, which can cause nausea and vomiting. Carbohydrate-rich foods, such as crackers, toast, rice, and cereal, can also absorb stomach acid and reduce nausea and vomiting.

Choice D reason: Lying down for an hour after eating is not a good strategy for managing chronic nausea during pregnancy because it can cause acid reflux and worsen nausea and vomiting. It is better to sit upright or walk for a few minutes after eating during pregnancy.

Choice A reason: Tapioca is a gluten-free food that can be recommended for a client who has celiac disease. Tapioca is a starch extracted from the cassava root, which is a tuber plant. Tapioca can be used to make puddings, breads, flours, and pearls.

Choice B reason: Barley is not a gluten-free food that can be recommended for a client who has celiac disease. Barley is a cereal grain that contains gluten, which is a protein that can trigger an immune response and damage the small intestine in people who have celiac disease. Barley should be avoided or replaced with gluten-free grains, such as rice, quinoa, or buckwheat.

Choice C reason: Cold cuts are not gluten-free foods that can be recommended for a client who has celiac disease. Cold cuts are sliced meats that are often processed and cured with additives, such as fillers, binders, and preservatives, that may contain gluten. Cold cuts should be avoided or checked for gluten-free labels before consuming.

Choice D reason: Flavored chips are not gluten-free foods that can be recommended for a client who has celiac disease. Flavored chips are snack foods that are often made from potatoes, corn, or rice, which are gluten-free ingredients, but they may also contain seasonings, spices, and sauces that may contain gluten. Flavored chips should be avoided or checked for gluten-free labels before consuming.

Choice A reason: Recommending a total fiber intake of 12 g each day is not an appropriate action for the nurse to take because it is too low for most adults. The recommended dietary allowance (RDA. for fiber is 25 g per day for women and 38 g per day for men, which can help lower cholesterol, regulate blood sugar, and promote bowel health.

Choice B reason: Referring the client to a weight-loss support group is an appropriate action for the nurse to take because it can help the client achieve and maintain a healthy weight. A body mass index (BMI) of 28 indicates overweight, which can increase the risk of chronic diseases, such as diabetes, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease. A weight-loss support group can provide education, motivation, and accountability for the client.

Choice C reason: Advising the client to add 500 calories per day to the diet is not an appropriate action for the nurse to take because it can lead to weight gain. A client who has a BMI of 28 does not need to increase their caloric intake unless they have other medical conditions or nutritional needs that require more calories. Adding 500 calories per day to the diet can result in gaining about one pound per week, which can worsen the health outcomes of the client.

Choice D reason: Encouraging the client to continue current daily caloric intake is not an appropriate action for the nurse to take because it may prevent weight loss. A client who has a BMI of 28 needs to reduce their caloric intake by 500 to 1,000 calories per day to lose one to two pounds per week, which is considered a safe and effective rate of weight loss.

Choice A reason: Thawing frozen meat on the counter is not a good practice for food poisoning prevention because it can allow bacteria to grow rapidly on the surface of the meat. Thawing frozen meat should be done in the refrigerator, in cold water, or in the microwave.

Choice B reason: Reusing leftover marinade as sauce is not a good practice for food poisoning prevention because it can contaminate cooked food with raw meat juices that may contain bacteria. Leftover marinade should be discarded or boiled for at least one minute before using as sauce.

Choice C reason: Apple pie is a good choice for food poisoning prevention because it is unlikely to contain harmful bacteria or toxins. Apple pie is made from cooked apples, sugar, flour, and butter, which are low-risk ingredients for food poisoning. Apple pie should be stored in the refrigerator or freezer after cooling to prevent spoilage.

Choice D reason: Cooked rice is not a good choice for food poisoning prevention because it can harbor a bacterium called Bacillus cereus, which can produce toxins that cause vomiting and diarrhea. Cooked rice should be cooled quickly and stored in the refrigerator for no more than one day or in the freezer for longer periods. Cooked rice should be reheated thoroughly before eating.

Choice A reason: Tuna can is not a safe food choice for a client who has food allergies because it may contain traces of other fish or shellfish that can trigger an allergic reaction. Tuna can should be avoided or checked for allergen labels before consuming.

Choice B reason: Gravy beef is not a safe food choice for a client who has food allergies because it may contain gluten, soy, or dairy products that can trigger an allergic reaction. Gravy beef should be avoided or checked for allergen labels before consuming.

Choice C reason: Apple pie is a safe food choice for a client who has food allergies because it is unlikely to contain common allergens, such as nuts, eggs, or milk. Apple pie is made from cooked apples, sugar, flour, and butter, which are low-risk ingredients for food allergies. Apple pie should be stored in the refrigerator or freezer after cooling to prevent spoilage.

Choice D reason: Bread is not a safe food choice for a client who has food allergies because it may contain gluten, wheat, or sesame seeds that can trigger an allergic reaction. Bread should be avoided or checked for allergen labels before consuming.

Choice A reason: Using an electronic device is not a reliable method for measuring blood pressure because it may give inaccurate readings due to movement, noise, or battery issues. An electronic device should be calibrated regularly and compared with a manual device.

Choice B reason: Inflating the cuff to 140/90 mmHg is not a correct procedure for measuring blood pressure because it may cause discomfort and false readings. The cuff should be inflated to about 20 to 30 mmHg above the expected systolic pressure or until the pulse disappears.

Choice C reason: Placing the cuff on the upper arm is a correct procedure for measuring blood pressure because it ensures that the cuff is at the same level as the heart and that the brachial artery is compressed. The cuff should be snug and fit around 80% of the arm circumference.

Choice D reason: Measuring blood pressure after exercise is not a good time for measuring blood pressure because it may reflect a temporary increase due to physical activity. Blood pressure should be measured after resting for at least 5 minutes in a quiet and comfortable environment.

Choice A reason: Checking blood glucose level is an appropriate action for the nurse to take because it can help determine if the client has hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia, which are both complications of diabetes mellitus that can cause dizziness and weakness. Blood glucose level should be checked using a glucometer and compared with the normal range of 70 to 130 mg/dL before meals and less than 180 mg/dL after meals.

Choice B reason: Giving insulin injection is not an appropriate action for the nurse to take without checking blood glucose level first because it may cause hypoglycemia, which is a condition in which blood glucose level drops below 70 mg/dL and can cause dizziness, weakness, confusion, sweating, and seizures. Insulin injection should be given according to the prescribed dose, type, and schedule.

Choice C reason: Offering orange juice is not an appropriate action for the nurse to take without checking blood glucose level first because it may cause hyperglycemia, which is a condition in which blood glucose level rises above 180 mg/dL and can cause dizziness, weakness, thirst, polyuria, and ketoacidosis. Orange juice should be offered only if the client has hypoglycemia and is conscious and able to swallow.

Choice D reason: Applying cold compress is not an appropriate action for the nurse to take because it does not address the underlying cause of dizziness and weakness in a client who has diabetes mellitus. Cold compress may worsen the symptoms by reducing blood flow and oxygen delivery to the brain. Cold compress should be applied only if the client has fever, inflammation, or pain.

Choice A reason: Scrambled eggs are a good food choice for a client who has difficulty chewing due to ill-fitting dentures because they are soft, moist, and easy to swallow. Scrambled eggs also provide protein, iron, and vitamin B12 for the client.

Choice B reason: Tuna fish is not a good food choice for a client who has difficulty chewing due to ill-fitting dentures because it may contain bones, skin, or scales that can cause discomfort or injury to the gums or mouth. Tuna fish should be avoided or checked for bones and skin before consuming.

Choice C reason: Roast beef is not a good food choice for a client who has difficulty chewing due to ill-fitting dentures because it is tough, dry, and hard to chew. Roast beef can cause pain, fatigue, or choking for the client who has ill-fitting dentures. Roast beef should be avoided or cut into very small pieces and moistened with gravy or sauce before consuming.

Choice D reason: Apple slices are not a good food choice for a client who has difficulty chewing due to ill-fitting dentures because they are crisp, firm, and sticky. Apple slices can dislodge or damage the dentures or cause irritation or infection to the gums or mouth. Apple slices should be avoided or cooked until soft and mashed before consuming.

Choice E reason: Dried fruit is not a good food choice for a client who has difficulty chewing due to ill-fitting dentures because they are chewy, sticky, and sugary. Dried fruit can adhere to the dentures or teeth and cause dental caries or gum disease. Dried fruit should be avoided or soaked in water until soft and cut into small pieces before consuming.

Choice A reason: Tuna fish is a good food choice for an older adult client who has difficulty chewing due to missing teeth because it is soft, moist, and easy to swallow. Tuna fish also provides protein, omega-3 fatty acids, and vitamin D for the client.

Choice B reason: Roast beef is not a good food choice for an older adult client who has difficulty chewing due to missing teeth because it is tough, dry, and hard to chew. Roast beef can cause pain, fatigue, or choking for the client who has missing teeth. Roast beef should be avoided or cut into very small pieces and moistened with gravy or sauce before consuming.

Choice C reason: Apple slices are not a good food choice for an older adult client who has difficulty chewing due to missing teeth because they are crisp, firm, and sticky. Apple slices can cause irritation or injury to the gums or mouth or dislodge any remaining teeth. Apple slices should be avoided or cooked until soft and mashed before consuming.

Choice D reason: Dried fruit is not a good food choice for an older adult client who has difficulty chewing due to missing teeth because they are chewy, sticky, and sugary. Dried fruit can adhere to the gums or teeth and cause dental caries or gum disease. Dried fruit should be avoided or soaked in water until soft and cut into small pieces before consuming.

Choice A reason: Reducing the client's sodium intake is an appropriate intervention for the nurse to take because it can help prevent fluid retention and edema, which are complications of heart failure. Sodium intake should be limited to 2 g per day or less for clients who have heart failure.

Choice B reason: Restricting the client's protein intake is not an appropriate intervention for the nurse to take because it can cause malnutrition and muscle wasting, which can worsen heart failure. Protein intake should be adequate to meet the client's nutritional needs and support cardiac function. Protein intake should be about 0.8 to 1.2 g per kg of body weight per day for clients who have heart failure.

Choice C reason: Weighing the client once per week is not an appropriate intervention for the nurse to take because it can delay the detection and treatment of fluid overload, which can worsen heart failure. The client should be weighed daily at the same time and with the same scale and clothing to monitor fluid status and adjust medication dosage.

Choice D reason: Providing the client with three large meals per day is not an appropriate intervention for the nurse to take because it can increase the workload of the heart and cause dyspnea, fatigue, or chest pain, which are symptoms of heart failure. The client should be provided with small, frequent meals that are low in sodium, fat, and cholesterol to reduce cardiac stress and promote digestion.

Choice A reason: Offering the client frozen banana as a snack is an appropriate intervention for the nurse to take because it can help reduce nausea and stimulate appetite. Frozen banana is cold, bland, and easy to digest, which are characteristics of antiemetic foods. Frozen banana also provides potassium, vitamin C, and fiber for the client.

Choice B reason: Serving the client hot meals is not an appropriate intervention for the nurse to take because it can worsen nausea and vomiting. Hot meals are aromatic, spicy, and greasy, which are characteristics of emetic foods. Hot meals can also irritate the stomach lining and trigger the gag reflex.

Choice C reason: Avoiding serving sauces or gravies is not an appropriate intervention for the nurse to take because it can cause dehydration and malnutrition. Sauces and gravies are liquid, mild, and moist, which are characteristics of antiemetic foods. Sauces and gravies can also enhance the flavor and texture of bland foods and provide calories and nutrients for the client.

Choice D reason: Discouraging the use of a straw is not an appropriate intervention for the nurse to take because it can prevent adequate fluid intake and hydration. Using a straw can help the client sip small amounts of clear liquids, such as water, ginger ale, or broth, which are antiemetic fluids. Using a straw can also reduce the exposure to odors and tastes that may cause nausea.

Choice A reason: Using a washcloth to clean the denture surfaces is not a good practice for denture care because it can damage or scratch the dentures. A washcloth is too rough and abrasive for denture cleaning. A soft-bristled toothbrush or a special denture brush should be used to clean the denture surfaces gently.

Choice B reason: Wiping dentures before storing them in a dry container at night is not a good practice for denture care because it can cause warping or cracking of the dentures. Dentures should be rinsed thoroughly and soaked in water or a denture cleanser solution at night to keep them moist and prevent deformation.

Choice C reason: Flossing dentures as part of daily cleaning is not a necessary practice for denture care because it does not remove plaque or food particles effectively from the dentures. Flossing dentures can also damage or dislodge the artificial teeth or gums. Brushing and rinsing dentures are sufficient for daily cleaning.

Choice D reason: Wrapping gloved fingers with gauze to remove dentures is a good practice for denture care because it can prevent slipping or dropping of the dentures. Gauze provides friction and grip for removing dentures safely and gently. Gloves protect from contamination and infection.

Choice A reason: Reporting ability to complete ADLs is not a specific finding that indicates that probiotic therapy is effective. Ability to complete ADLs depends on various factors, such as energy level, muscle strength, mobility, cognition, and motivation. Ability to complete ADLs may improve with parenteral nutrition, but not necessarily with probiotic therapy.

Choice B reason: Having pink mucous membranes is not a specific finding that indicates that probiotic therapy is effective. Pink mucous membranes reflect adequate hydration and oxygenation status, which are important for overall health, but not directly related to probiotic therapy.

Choice C reason: Having blood glucose level within the expected reference range is not a specific finding that indicates that probiotic therapy is effective. Blood glucose level is influenced by carbohydrate intake, insulin production, and medication use, which are related to parenteral nutrition, but not probiotic therapy.

Choice D reason: Having soft, formed bowel movements is a specific finding that indicates that probiotic therapy is effective. Probiotic therapy is the use of beneficial bacteria or yeast to restore the normal flora and function of the gastrointestinal tract, which can prevent or treat diarrhea, constipation, or infection. Having soft, formed bowel movements shows that the client has a healthy and balanced gut microbiome.

The correct answer is 57. The body mass index (BMI) is calculated by dividing the weight in kilograms by the square of the height in meters. In this case, BMI = 70 / (1.1)^2 = 57.85, which is rounded to 57.

Choice A reason: Potassium 3.5 mEq/L is not a finding that indicates fluid volume deficit because it is within the normal range, which is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. Potassium is an electrolyte that regulates nerve and muscle function, acid-base balance, and fluid balance. Potassium level can be affected by various factors, such as diet, medication, kidney function, and dehydration.

Choice B reason: Sodium 145 mEq/L is not a finding that indicates fluid volume deficit because it is within the normal range, which is 136 to 145 mEq/L. Sodium is an electrolyte that regulates blood pressure, blood volume, and fluid balance. Sodium level can be affected by various factors, such as diet, medication, kidney function, and fluid loss.

Choice C reason: Hematocrit 53% is a finding that indicates fluid volume deficit because it is above the normal range, which is 38 to 50% for men and 34 to 46% for women. Hematocrit is the percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume. Hematocrit level can increase due to dehydration, which causes hemoconcentration or increased blood viscosity.

Choice D reason: HbA1c 5% is not a finding that indicates fluid volume deficit because it is within the normal range, which is less than 5.7%. HbA1c is the percentage of hemoglobin that is attached to glucose. HbA1c level reflects the average blood glucose level over the past two to three months. HbA1c level can be affected by various factors, such as diabetes, anemia, and medication.

Choice A reason: Offering the client frozen banana as a snack is an appropriate intervention for the nurse to take because it can help soothe and cool the inflamed mucous membranes in the mouth and throat, which are caused by stomatitis. Stomatitis is an inflammation of the oral cavity that can result from radiation therapy or chemotherapy. Frozen banana also provides potassium, vitamin C, and fiber for the client.

Choice B reason: Serving the client hot meals is not an appropriate intervention for the nurse to take because it can worsen nausea and vomiting. Hot meals are aromatic, spicy, and greasy, which are characteristics of emetic foods. Hot meals can also irritate the stomach lining and trigger the gag reflex.

Choice C reason: Avoiding serving sauces or gravies is not an appropriate intervention for the nurse to take because it can cause dehydration and malnutrition. Sauces and gravies are liquid, mild, and moist, which are characteristics of antiemetic foods. Sauces and gravies can also enhance the flavor and texture of bland foods and provide calories and nutrients for the client.

Choice D reason: Discouraging the use of a straw is not an appropriate intervention for the nurse to take because it can prevent adequate fluid intake and hydration. Using a straw can help the client sip small amounts of clear liquids, such as water, ginger ale, or broth, which are antiemetic fluids. Using a straw can also reduce the exposure to odors and tastes that may cause nausea.

Choice A reason: Limiting high-calorie supplements to between meals is not a good strategy for managing anorexia while receiving radiation therapy because it can reduce the appetite and intake of regular meals, which are more nutritious and balanced. High-calorie supplements should be used as an addition to, not a replacement for, regular meals.

Choice B reason: Avoiding overeating during 'good' days is not a good strategy for managing anorexia while receiving radiation therapy because it can cause discomfort, nausea, or vomiting, which can worsen anorexia and affect the tolerance of radiation therapy. Eating should be based on hunger and satiety cues, not on good or bad days.

Choice C reason: Consuming nutrition-dense foods first is a good strategy for managing anorexia while receiving radiation therapy because it can ensure adequate intake of calories, protein, vitamins, and minerals, which are essential for healing and recovery. Nutrition-dense foods are those that provide high amounts of nutrients per serving, such as eggs, cheese, nuts, beans, and meat.

Choice D reason: Eating hot foods rather than cold foods is not a good strategy for managing anorexia while receiving radiation therapy because it can irritate the mouth and throat, which may be inflamed or sore due to radiation therapy. Cold foods are more soothing and refreshing for the mouth and throat, such as ice cream, yogurt, smoothies, and popsicles.

Choice A reason: Eating more tuna is not an appropriate food choice for a client who has gout because it is high in purines, which are substances that break down into uric acid in the body. Uric acid can form crystals in the joints and cause inflammation and pain, which are symptoms of gout. Tuna should be limited or avoided by clients who have gout.

Choice B reason: Eating more red meat is not an appropriate food choice for a client who has gout because it is high in purines, which are substances that break down into uric acid in the body. Uric acid can form crystals in the joints and cause inflammation and pain, which are symptoms of gout. Red meat should be limited or avoided by clients who have gout.

Choice C reason: Eating blueberries every morning is an appropriate food choice for a client who has gout because they are low in purines and high in antioxidants, which are substances that protect the cells from damage caused by free radicals. Antioxidants can help reduce inflammation and pain, which are symptoms of gout. Blueberries also provide vitamin C, fiber, and water for the client.

Choice D reason: Eating bananas for a snack is not an appropriate food choice for a client who has gout because they are high in fructose, which is a type of sugar that can increase uric acid levels in the blood. Fructose can worsen gout attacks by triggering inflammation and pain in the joints. Bananas should be limited or avoided by clients who have gout.