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Exam Review

Samuel Merrit University Oaklands Hesi Maternity (Labor and Delivery)

Total Questions : 44

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Question 1:

The nurse is caring for a client who delivered 6 hours ago. Assessment findings reveal a boggy uterus that is displaced above and to the right of the umbilicus. Which action should the nurse take?

Explanation

Encourage voiding:
While promoting voiding is essential to ensure the bladder isn't distended and causing the uterus to be displaced, this action alone might not resolve the issue of uterine atony.

Notify healthcare provider:
This is a critical step. Alerting the healthcare provider promptly is necessary because displaced and boggy uteruses often signal uterine atony, which may require immediate medical intervention.

Inspect the perineal pad:
Checking the perineal pad can give clues about the amount of lochia (postpartum vaginal discharge). However, in this scenario, the priority lies in addressing the potential uterine atony.

Monitor vital signs:
While it's important to monitor vital signs, especially in postpartum clients, the priority here is recognizing and managing the potential uterine atony.


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Question 2:

The nurse is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate to a laboring client whose blood pressure has increased from 110/60 mmHg to 140/90 mmHg Which nursing protocol has the highest priority?

Explanation

A. Insert a Foley catheter with a urimeter to monitor hourly output: This is a reasonable intervention because magnesium sulfate can affect renal function, and monitoring urinary output is essential. However, there's a more critical intervention to consider first.

B. Have calcium gluconate immediately available: This is the highest priority. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to neuromuscular blockade, and calcium gluconate is the antidote. Having it readily available is crucial in case signs of magnesium toxicity (such as loss of deep tendon reflexes) appear.

C. Provide a quiet environment with subdued lighting: While maintaining a calm environment is generally important for clients on magnesium sulfate, it is not the highest priority in this situation.

D. Assess deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) every 4 hours: This is an important part of monitoring for magnesium sulfate toxicity. However, the immediate availability of calcium gluconate is the highest priority in case toxicity occurs.


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Question 3:

A woman at 36-weeks gestation who is Rh negative is admitted to labor and delivery reporting abdominal cramping. She is placed on strict bedrest and the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern are monitored with an external fetal monitor Two hours after admission, the nurse notes a large amount of bright red vaginal bleeding. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

Explanation

A. Determine fetal position by performing Leopold maneuvers:
Leopold maneuvers are used to determine the fetal position and presentation by palpating the mother's abdomen. While this information can be valuable, it's not the highest priority in a situation where there is significant vaginal bleeding.

B. Assess the fetal heart rate and client's contraction pattern:
This is the highest priority because it directly addresses the immediate concern. Monitoring the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern helps to assess the well-being of both the mother and the baby.

C. Confirm Rh and Coombs status for Rho(D) immunoglobulin administration:
While determining Rh status is important, it may not be the immediate priority in this situation. However, if there is a need for Rho(D) immunoglobulin administration, it should be addressed in a timely manner.

D. Perform sterile vaginal examination to determine dilatation:
Performing a sterile vaginal examination is an important aspect of assessing the progress of labor, but it may not be the highest priority when there is significant vaginal bleeding. The focus initially should be on assessing the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern.


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Question 4:

The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is complaining of severe pain and a feeling of pressure in her perineum. Her fundus is firm and she has a moderate lochial flow. On inspection, the nurse finds that a perineal hematoma is beginning to form. Which assessment finding should the nurse obtain first?

Explanation

A. Hemoglobin and hematocrit:
While monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is important for assessing blood loss, in the immediate situation of a developing perineal hematoma with severe pain and pressure, assessing vital signs takes precedence to identify any signs of circulatory compromise.

B. Abdominal contour and bowel sounds:
These assessments are not the first priority in this situation. The client's complaint of severe pain and pressure in the perineum indicates a localized issue that needs immediate attention.

C. Heart rate and blood pressure:
This is the correct answer. Assessing the client's heart rate and blood pressure is crucial to identify signs of shock or compromised circulation associated with the perineal hematoma.

D. Urinary output and IV fluid intake:
While monitoring urinary output and IV fluid intake is important for overall assessment, in the context of a perineal hematoma, assessing vital signs is more immediate to identify any signs of hemodynamic instability.


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Question 5:

The nurse is performing a newborn assessment. Which symptom, if present in a newborn, would indicate respiratory distress?

Explanation

A. Flaring of the nares:
Flaring of the nares is a clinical sign of respiratory distress in newborns. It indicates that the infant is working harder to breathe and is attempting to increase the size of the nostrils to get more air.

B. Shallow and irregular respirations:
Shallow and irregular respirations can be a sign of respiratory distress, but flaring of the nares is a more specific and immediate indication.

C. Respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute:
While a respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute might be within the normal range for a newborn, the overall clinical picture, including other signs of distress, should be considered.

D. Abdominal breathing with synchronous chest movement:
Abdominal breathing with synchronous chest movement is not a normal pattern for a newborn and could indicate respiratory distress.


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Question 6:

Which physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?

Explanation

A. Unilateral lower leg pain:
Unilateral lower leg pain can be a symptom of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious condition. It requires further assessment and intervention.

B. Soft, spongy fundus:
A soft, spongy fundus is not a normal finding 12 hours postpartum. The fundus should be firm and well-contracted. A soft fundus could indicate uterine atony, a potential cause of postpartum hemorrhage.

C. Saturating two perineal pads per hour:
Saturating two perineal pads per hour is not a normal finding and may indicate excessive bleeding, which is concerning for postpartum hemorrhage. This requires immediate attention.

D. Pulse rate of 56 beats/minute:
A pulse rate of 56 beats per minute can be within the normal range, especially if the client is at rest. However, it's essential to consider the overall clinical picture and whether there are any signs of distress or symptoms associated with a low pulse rate.


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Question 7:

A client who is 32 weeks gestation comes to the women's health clinic and reports nausea and vomiting. On examination, the nurse notes that the client has an elevated blood pressure. Which action should the nurse implement next?

Explanation

Inspect the client's face for edema:
Elevated blood pressure during pregnancy may be a sign of preeclampsia, a condition that can involve fluid retention. Edema, particularly in the face, is one of the signs that the nurse should assess for in determining if preeclampsia is a concern.

Ascertain the frequency of headaches:
Frequent headaches can be a symptom of various conditions, including preeclampsia. Gathering information about the frequency and characteristics of headaches can provide additional data for assessing the client's overall condition.

Evaluate for history of cluster headaches:
Cluster headaches, while severe, are not typically associated with elevated blood pressure during pregnancy. This information might not be directly relevant to the client's current symptoms.

Observe and time client's contractions:
Contractions are not typically associated with nausea, vomiting, or elevated blood pressure during pregnancy. This action may not address the primary concerns presented by the client.


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Question 8:

A multiparous client with active herpes lesions is admitted to the unit with spontaneous rupture of membranes. Which action should the nurse take?

Explanation

Prepare for a cesarean section:
The presence of active herpes lesions alone doesn't necessarily indicate an immediate need for a cesarean section. The decision for a cesarean section would depend on various factors, including the presence of active lesions during labor and the potential risk of transmission to the baby.

Cover the lesion with a dressing:
This is the correct action. Covering active herpes lesions with a dressing helps reduce the risk of transmission of the virus to the newborn during delivery.

Obtain blood cultures:
Obtaining blood cultures may not be the primary action in this situation. The concern is more related to preventing the transmission of the herpes virus to the newborn.

Administer penicillin:
Penicillin is not the treatment for herpes. Antiviral medications such as acyclovir are typically used for the treatment of herpes infections.


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Question 9:

A client at 18-weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?

Explanation

Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects:
This choice might be premature as an initial response. An elevated AFP level doesn't definitively indicate congenital defects but can suggest the possibility of certain conditions. Surgical correction would not be the immediate next step.

Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) should be evaluated:
This is a reasonable step. An elevated AFP level might not always indicate a problem, as false positives can occur. A repeat AFP test can help confirm the accuracy of the initial result before further steps are taken.

Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading:
Providing false reassurance may lead to misunderstandings. While false positives can happen, it's crucial to follow up with further assessments to ensure the accuracy of the results.

Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results:
A sonogram (ultrasound) can provide additional information and is often used in conjunction with AFP testing to assess fetal development and detect possible abnormalities. However, it might not be the immediate next step after an elevated AFP level. Repeating the AFP test might be the initial course of action.


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Question 10:

The healthcare provider prescribes oxytocin 2 milliunits/minute to induce labor for a client at 41-weeks gestation. The nurse initiates an infusion of Ringer's Lactate solution 1000 mL with oxytocin 10 units. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number)

Explanation

To solve this problem, the nurse needs to convert the units of oxytocin from units to milliunits.

One unit of oxytocin is equal to 1000 milliunits, so 10 units of oxytocin is equal to 10,000 milliunits.

- The concentration of oxytocin in the solution is 10,000 milliunits per 1000 mL, or 10 milliunits per mL.

- To deliver 2 milliunits per minute, the nurse needs to infuse 0.2 mL per minute of the solution.

- To convert from mL per minute to mL per hour, the nurse needs to multiply by 60 minutes per hour.

- Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 0.2 x 60 = 12 mL per hour of the solution.


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Question 11:

The nurse is reviewing a woman's health care record during her first prenatal visit. The client has a history of chicken pox as a child and syphills as a teenager. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

Explanation

A. Obtain blood and urine for prenatal screens.
This choice is important because it allows the nurse to assess the client's overall health, screen for infections, and identify any potential risks or complications that may impact the pregnancy.

B. Explain common complications of pregnancy.
While educating the client about common complications is valuable, it may not address the immediate need to screen for specific infections or assess the client's current health status. This information can be covered during prenatal education sessions.

C. Obtain baseline blood pressure and weight.
This is a routine part of prenatal care and is important for monitoring the client's health throughout pregnancy. However, if the client has a history of syphilis, obtaining specific prenatal screens (including for syphilis) would be a more targeted and immediate action.

D. Schedule prenatal visits to occur monthly.
Scheduling regular prenatal visits is essential for monitoring the progression of the pregnancy. However, addressing the specific health concerns and obtaining necessary screens take precedence during the initial visit, especially considering the client's history of syphilis.


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Question 12:

Which type of anesthesia, used with a client in labor, produces a loss of sensation only to the vagina and perineum?

Explanation

A. Epidural block: Epidural anesthesia is a regional anesthesia that blocks sensations in a specific region of the body. It is commonly used in labor and delivery to provide pain relief by injecting anesthetic medication into the epidural space, numbing the lower half of the body.

B. Saddle block: A saddle block, also known as a subarachnoid block, is a type of spinal anesthesia. It involves injecting anesthetic medication into the subarachnoid space, providing numbness to the lower half of the body, including the perineum.

C. Paracervical block: A paracervical block involves injecting a local anesthetic around the cervix. It is used to provide pain relief during certain medical procedures, such as cervical dilation or biopsy. It does not provide anesthesia to the entire perineum.

D. Pudendal block: A pudendal block involves injecting a local anesthetic into the pudendal nerve, which supplies sensation to the perineum. It is often used during the second stage of labor to provide localized pain relief during the delivery of the baby's head.


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Question 13:

A 25-year-old client who had a severe postpartum hemorrhage following the vaginal birth of twins is transferred to the postpartum unit. The nurse knows that assessment for what complication has the highest priority for this client?

Explanation

A. Placenta accreta: Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall. While this can be a concern, the client in this scenario has already given birth, so this may not be the highest priority at this moment.

B. Hard, painful uterine afterpains: Afterpains are common in the postpartum period, especially in women who have given birth to multiples. While they can be uncomfortable, they are generally expected and not considered a severe complication.

C. Postpartum psychosis: Postpartum psychosis is a serious mental health condition that can occur after childbirth. It is characterized by symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and severe mood disturbances. While it is a serious concern, it might not be the immediate priority in a client who has had a severe postpartum hemorrhage.

D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC): This is a life-threatening condition where there is widespread activation of clotting factors, leading to excessive blood clotting followed by bleeding. Given the history of severe postpartum hemorrhage, DIC is a significant concern, and prompt assessment and intervention are crucial.


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Question 14:

What instruction is most important for the nurse to provide a client in the first trimester of pregnancy who is experiencing nausea?

Explanation

A. Avoid alcohol, caffeine, and smoking: This is generally good advice during pregnancy to promote a healthy environment for the developing fetus, but it may not specifically address nausea.

B. Eliminate between meal snacks: While this might be suggested for some individuals, keeping something light on the stomach, like crackers, can sometimes help alleviate nausea.

C. Practice relaxation techniques when the nausea first begins: Relaxation techniques, such as deep breathing or meditation, can be beneficial in managing nausea, especially if stress or anxiety contributes to the symptoms.

D. Increase intake of fluids to 3 quarts daily: Staying hydrated is important during pregnancy, but drinking too much fluid at once might not necessarily alleviate nausea and could potentially make it worse.


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Question 15:

During a routine first trimester prenatal exam, a pregnant client tells the nurse that she has noticed an increase in vaginal discharge that is white, thin, and watery. Which action should the nurse implement?

Explanation

A. Notify the healthcare provider of the complaint: While it's important for the healthcare provider to be aware of any changes or symptoms the client is experiencing, the described discharge is commonly associated with normal physiological changes in pregnancy.

B. Recommend an over-the-counter yeast medication: The characteristics of the discharge described (white, thin, and watery) are not typical of a yeast infection. Using over-the-counter medications without proper assessment can lead to unnecessary treatment.

C. Inform her that this is a normal physiological change: This is the most appropriate action. Increased vaginal discharge, often described as leukorrhea, is a common and normal change during pregnancy. It's generally thin, white, and watery.

D. Prepare the client for a sterile speculum exam: A sterile speculum exam may be indicated if there are other concerning symptoms or if the discharge changes in color, consistency, or if there is associated itching or foul odor. However, based on the information provided, it's not the first-line action.


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Question 16:

A client at 40-weeks gestation is admitted in active labor, and laboratory findings indicate that she is HIV positive. Which actions should the nurse plan to perform? (Select all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Place client in a negative pressure room: Negative pressure rooms are typically used for airborne precautions, not for preventing the transmission of HIV, which primarily requires standard precautions.

B. Implement droplet precautions: HIV does not spread through respiratory droplets. Droplet precautions are for diseases like influenza or meningitis that spread through respiratory droplets, not for HIV.

C. Encourage the mother to bottle-feed: This recommendation can vary based on specific circumstances. In many developed countries, the recommendation is for HIV-positive mothers to avoid breastfeeding to reduce the risk of transmitting HIV to the infant. However, this decision should be discussed with healthcare providers and based on individual circumstances.

D. Give antiviral medication intravenously: Antiretroviral medications are used to manage HIV. However, the method of administration and specific medications depend on the client's condition and the stage of pregnancy. Intravenous administration might not be the standard for HIV management during labor.

E. Use standard precautions: Standard precautions are the most appropriate approach. These include wearing gloves, practicing good hand hygiene, and using protective barriers as needed to prevent contact with blood and body fluids, which is the primary mode of HIV transmission.


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Question 17:

A 16-year-old gravida 1, para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She is not presently convulsing Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in this client's nursing care plan?

Explanation

A. Monitor blood pressure, pulse, and respirations every 4 hours: Monitoring vital signs is important, especially in a client with eclampsia. However, the frequency of monitoring may need to be increased, particularly if the client's condition is unstable.

B. Keep an airway at the bedside: This is a crucial intervention. Eclampsia can lead to seizures, and having airway management equipment readily available is essential to ensure the client's safety during and after a seizure.

C. Allow liberal family visitation: While family support is important, the priority in eclampsia management is the safety and well-being of the client. Family visitation should be allowed, but it may need to be balanced with the need for a controlled and safe environment.

D. Assess temperature every hour: While monitoring temperature is a part of routine care, it may not be the highest priority in the context of eclampsia. Monitoring for signs of imminent seizure activity and maintaining a safe environment take precedence.

Preeclampsia & eclampsia: Video, Anatomy & Definition | Osmosis


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Question 18:

The nurse is caring for a postpartal client who is exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache 24 hours following delivery of a normal newborn. Prior to the anesthesiologist's arrival on the unit, which action should the nurse perform?

Explanation

A. Cleanse the spinal injection site:
Cleansing the spinal injection site is a routine part of maintaining proper hygiene during and after the administration of spinal anesthesia. However, if the client is experiencing symptoms of a spinal headache, the priority is to prepare for potential interventions by having the necessary equipment ready rather than focusing on the site itself.

B. Apply an abdominal binder:
Applying an abdominal binder is not directly related to addressing a spinal headache. Abdominal binders are typically used for providing support to the abdominal muscles after childbirth or surgery. It wouldn't be the primary intervention for a spinal headache.

C. Insert an indwelling Foley catheter:
Inserting an indwelling Foley catheter is not a direct intervention for addressing a spinal headache. Spinal headaches are related to cerebrospinal fluid leakage and positioning. While managing the patient's overall care is important, it may not be the immediate priority in this context.

D. Place procedure equipment at bedside:
This is the most appropriate action in the context of a postpartal client exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache. Having the necessary procedure equipment, such as materials for a blood patch, ready at the bedside ensures preparedness for potential interventions by the anesthesiologist.


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Question 19:

A client at 40-weeks gestation presents to the obstetrical floor and indicates that the amniotic membranes ruptured spontaneously at home. She is in active labor, and feels the need to bear down and push. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Explanation

A. Estimated amount of fluid:
Knowing the estimated amount of amniotic fluid can provide some information, but it may not be as crucial as other factors in this situation. The primary concern is often related to the color and odor of the amniotic fluid to assess for potential issues.

B. Color and consistency of fluid:
This is a crucial piece of information. The color and consistency of amniotic fluid can provide important clues about fetal well-being and the presence of meconium, which may indicate fetal distress.

C. Time the membranes ruptured:
Knowing the time when the membranes ruptured is essential for assessing the duration of time since the rupture. This information helps in determining the risk of infection, which is a concern after prolonged rupture of membranes.

D. Any odor noted when membranes ruptured:
This is also a critical piece of information. An unpleasant odor, especially if it is foul-smelling, could be indicative of infection. Infection risk increases with prolonged rupture of membranes.


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Question 20:

The nurse receives a newborn within the first minutes after a vaginal delivery and intervenes to establish adequate respirations. What priority issue should the nurse address to ensure the newborn's survival?

Explanation

A. Bleeding tendencies:
Bleeding tendencies are not typically a priority immediately after birth unless there is a specific indication. Newborns are not at immediate risk for bleeding unless there are underlying conditions.

B. Heat loss:
Heat loss is a significant concern for newborns. Maintaining an adequate temperature is crucial to prevent hypothermia, which can lead to complications.

C. Hypoglycemia:
While monitoring blood glucose is important in the newborn, it may not be the most immediate concern within the first minutes after delivery. Stabilizing the newborn's temperature and initiating breathing are usually higher priorities.

D. Fluid balance:
Fluid balance is essential, but the initial focus is often on establishing respirations and maintaining temperature. Fluids may be administered as needed based on the clinical assessment.


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Question 21:

A pregnant client receives Rho(D) immune globulin after an amniocentesis. The day following the procedure the client calls the nurse to report a temperature of 99.8° F (37.67°C). Which action should the nurse implement?

Explanation

A. Instruct the client to maintain bed rest for 24 hours:
There is no clear indication for bed rest based solely on a slightly elevated temperature. Bed rest is not a standard recommendation for this situation.

B. Encourage the client to increase her intake of oral fluids:
Increasing fluid intake is a general recommendation for mild elevations in temperature. Adequate hydration can support the body's natural response to infection or inflammation.

C. Schedule a visit with the healthcare provider today:
This option is a prudent choice. A temperature elevation after a medical procedure may indicate an infection, and it's appropriate to schedule a visit with the healthcare provider for further evaluation.

D. Verify the administered Rho(D) immune globulin's compatibility:
While verifying the compatibility of the administered medication is important, it is not the primary concern when a client reports an elevated temperature. In this context, addressing the temperature and potential infection takes precedence.


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Question 22:

A new mother who is breastfeeding her 4-week-old infant and has type 1 diabetes, reports that her insulin needs have decreased since the birth of her child. Which action should the nurse implement?

Explanation

A. Schedule an appointment for the client with the diabetic nurse educator:
This could be a helpful action. The diabetic nurse educator can provide valuable support and education on managing insulin needs during breastfeeding.

B. Counsel her to increase her caloric intake:
While adequate nutrition is essential, increasing caloric intake may not be the primary factor affecting insulin needs. It's important to consider the specific needs of the client, and any adjustments to insulin should be made based on careful monitoring.

C. Inform her that a decreased need for insulin occurs while breastfeeding:
This is accurate information. Breastfeeding can lead to a decreased need for insulin in some individuals. The nurse should provide education on this aspect of managing diabetes during breastfeeding.

D. Advise the client to breastfeed more frequently:
While breastfeeding frequency can impact insulin needs, it's essential to consider the overall picture. Simply increasing breastfeeding frequency may not be the only factor affecting insulin requirements.


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Question 23:

During the newborn admission assessment, the nurse palpates the newborn's scrotum and does not feel the testicles. Which assessment technique should the nurse perform next to verify the absence of testes?

Explanation

A. Use a fingertip to palpate the inguinal canal for a weakening or indentation:
This is a reasonable next step in assessing for undescended testes. Palpating the inguinal canal can help determine if the testes are located in the inguinal area.

B.Measure the size of the scrotal sac for length and width:
While scrotal size can be relevant in some contexts, it may not provide direct information about the presence or absence of the testes. Palpation or other methods are more specific for this purpose.

C. Perform transillumination of the scrotal sac to visualize shadows of the testes:
Transillumination involves shining light through tissues to detect structures. However, in the case of evaluating the presence of testes, palpation is usually a more direct and accurate method.

D. Observe the urethral opening on the surface of the penis when the newborn voids:
This option is unrelated to assessing the presence of testes. Observing the urethral opening is more relevant for assessing the anatomy of the penis.


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Question 24:

After two miscarriages, a client is instructed to increase her daily intake of foods that includes folic acid. The client does not like green leafy vegetables and states she is allergic to soy. Which food should the nurse suggest that the client eat to obtain folic acid?

Explanation

A. Strawberries:
Strawberries contain a moderate amount of folic acid, providing a good alternative source for the client. While not as high as some vegetables, they still offer a reasonable amount of this essential nutrient. This could be a suitable option considering the client's dislike for green leafy vegetables and allergy to soy.

B. Collard greens:
Collard greens are an excellent source of folic acid. However, since the client dislikes green leafy vegetables, recommending collard greens might not align with her preferences.

C. Whole milk:
Whole milk doesn't contain significant amounts of folic acid. While it's a source of other nutrients, it isn't a primary choice for obtaining folic acid.

D. Yogurt:
Similar to whole milk, yogurt doesn't contain a substantial amount of folic acid. While it offers various health benefits due to its probiotics and nutrients, it's not a significant source of folic acid.


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Question 25:

A young woman who underwent a liver transplant one year ago tells the clinic nurse that she would like to start a family. How should the nurse intervene?

Explanation

A. Provide information about the high-risk nature of her pregnancy:

While it is true that pregnancies after organ transplantation are considered high-risk due to potential complications, the initial recommendation often involves waiting for a specified period.

B. Explain the benefits of a five-year post-transplant waiting period

After a liver transplant, healthcare providers typically recommend waiting for a certain period before attempting pregnancy. This waiting period allows the individual's health to stabilize, and it ensures that the transplanted organ is functioning optimally. Pregnancy, being a physiological stressor, can pose additional challenges to individuals with transplants. Waiting for a few years post-transplant is a precautionary measure to minimize potential risks.

C. Gently remind the client that anti-rejection drugs cause sterility:

This statement is not accurate. Anti-rejection drugs can affect fertility, but they do not cause sterility. The discussion should focus on the potential risks and safety considerations for pregnancy after a liver transplant.

D. Determine if the client is considering options for adopting a child:

While adoption might be an option, the primary intervention should involve discussing the waiting period and potential risks associated with pregnancy after a liver transplant.


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