Tuberculosis

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Question 1: A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with chickenpox. What interventions should the nurse implement to manage the patient's condition effectively? Select all that apply.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Monitor vital signs, fluid intake and output, weight, and skin integrity. This statement is correct. When caring for a patient with chickenpox, monitoring vital signs can help detect any signs of complications like fever. Fluid intake and output, weight, and skin integrity are important to assess the patient's hydration status and the progression of the rash.

Choice B rationale:

Administer medications as prescribed and monitor for adverse effects. This statement is correct. The nurse should give antiviral medications if prescribed to help shorten the duration of the illness and reduce its severity. Monitoring for any adverse effects from the medications is essential for patient safety.

Choice C rationale:

Encourage contact with pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals to build immunity. This statement is incorrect. Encouraging contact with pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals is not appropriate because chickenpox is highly contagious and can pose serious risks to these vulnerable populations. The nurse should advise the patient to avoid contact with them until they are no longer infectious.

Choice D rationale:

Advise the patient to avoid contact with those who have had chickenpox or been vaccinated. This statement is partially correct. The patient should avoid contact with individuals who have not had chickenpox or have not been vaccinated against it to prevent the spread of the disease. However, vaccinated individuals are less likely to transmit the virus than those with active chickenpox.

Choice E rationale:

Isolate the patient until all lesions are crusted over to prevent transmission to others. This statement is correct. Isolating the patient until all the lesions are crusted over is an important infection control measure to prevent the spread of the varicella-zoster virus to others. Once the lesions are crusted, the patient is no longer contagious.


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Question 2: A client has been diagnosed with shingles. What interventions should the nurse implement to provide appropriate care? Select all that apply.

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The nurse should monitor vital signs, pain level, neurological status, and eye function for a client with shingles to assess for any complications or worsening of the condition. Vital signs may indicate signs of infection, pain level may help assess the effectiveness of pain management, neurological status can indicate any neurological complications, and eye function is important as shingles affecting the ophthalmic nerve can lead to eye complications.

Choice B rationale:

Administering medications as prescribed is crucial to manage the symptoms and complications of shingles. Antiviral medications can help reduce the severity and duration of the outbreak, while pain medications may be necessary to alleviate discomfort. The nurse should also monitor for adverse effects to ensure the client's safety during treatment.

Choice D rationale:

Isolating the patient until all lesions are crusted over is necessary to prevent the spread of the varicella-zoster virus, which causes shingles. Direct contact with vesicles can lead to transmission of the virus to susceptible individuals, particularly those who have not had chickenpox or received the varicella vaccine.

Choice E rationale:

Providing comfort measures is essential in managing the symptoms of shingles. Cool compresses can help relieve pain and inflammation, loose clothing can prevent irritation of the affected area, distraction techniques can divert the client's attention from discomfort, and relaxation methods can help reduce stress and promote healing.

Choice C rationale:

Encouraging the client to scratch the affected area is not appropriate care for shingles. Scratching can lead to skin damage, increase the risk of infection, and potentially worsen the condition. It is essential to advise against scratching and promote gentle care of the affected area instead.


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Question 3: A nurse is educating a patient with chickenpox about their condition. Which statement by the nurse is appropriate?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The nurse should advise the patient with chickenpox to avoid contact with pregnant women, immunocompromised individuals, newborns, and people who have not had chickenpox or been vaccinated. Chickenpox is highly contagious and can be severe or even life-threatening for vulnerable populations. This precaution helps protect those who are at a higher risk of complications from the infection.

Choice B rationale:

Sharing personal items such as towels and utensils should be avoided during chickenpox. Chickenpox spreads through respiratory droplets and direct contact with fluid from the blisters. Sharing personal items can increase the risk of transmission to others.

Choice C rationale:

It is not appropriate for the nurse to recommend scratching the chickenpox lesions. Scratching can lead to secondary bacterial infections and scarring. The patient should be encouraged to use methods like calamine lotion or antihistamines to relieve itching.

Choice D rationale:

The patient should not return to work or school until all lesions are crusted over and they are no longer contagious. Typically, this occurs about 6-7 days after the rash first appears. Returning too early can increase the risk of spreading the virus to others.


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Question 4: A client with shingles is worried about transmitting the disease to others. What statement by the client indicates understanding of the nurse's teaching?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

This statement indicates the client understands the nurse's teaching about shingles. The client should avoid contact with pregnant women, immunocompromised individuals, newborns, and those who have not had chickenpox or been vaccinated against it. Shingles is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. Direct contact with shingles lesions can transmit the virus to susceptible individuals, leading to chickenpox in those who have not had it before.

Choice B rationale:

Direct contact with family members, especially if they are part of the vulnerable populations mentioned, should be avoided until the shingles lesions are crusted over. This is to prevent transmission of the virus to susceptible individuals.

Choice C rationale:

Respiratory hygiene is still important for individuals with shingles, even though the virus is primarily spread through contact with the lesions. Respiratory droplets can potentially transmit the virus to others, so it's essential to follow good hygiene practices.

Choice D rationale:

Sharing personal items should be avoided during shingles, as it can increase the risk of transmission to others who have not had chickenpox or been vaccinated.


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Question 5: Which of the following is the most effective way to prevent chickenpox and shingles?

Explanation

Choice C rationale:

The most effective way to prevent both chickenpox and shingles is through vaccination. Chickenpox can be prevented by receiving the varicella vaccine (Varivax), and shingles can be prevented or its severity reduced by getting vaccinated with the herpes zoster vaccine (Shingrix) These vaccines stimulate the immune system to provide protection against the respective viruses.

Choice A rationale:

While handwashing with soap and water is essential for general hygiene and can help reduce the spread of infectious diseases, it is not the most effective method for preventing chickenpox and shingles.

Choice B rationale:

Avoiding contact with contaminated surfaces can help reduce the transmission of various infections, but it may not be sufficient to prevent chickenpox and shingles, which are primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets and direct contact with lesions.

Choice D rationale:

Isolating infected individuals until all lesions are crusted over is a measure to prevent the spread of chickenpox, but it is not as effective as vaccination in preventing the disease and its complications. Now, searching for three additional ATI/HESI MCQs related to the topic of Tuberculosis (TB)


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Question 6: A nurse is caring for a patient suspected of having tuberculosis (TB) Which symptom is commonly associated with TB?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Abdominal pain is not commonly associated with tuberculosis (TB) TB primarily affects the lungs, and symptoms such as cough, fever, weight loss, and night sweats are more typical of TB.

Choice B rationale:

Headache is not a common symptom of TB. While TB can cause systemic symptoms like fever and fatigue, it does not typically cause headaches unless there are complications involving the central nervous system, which is relatively rare.

Choice C rationale:

Hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine, is not a symptom commonly associated with TB. TB primarily affects the respiratory system and is not known to cause urinary symptoms.

Choice D rationale:

Cough is a hallmark symptom of tuberculosis. It is usually a productive cough that lasts for several weeks or longer, with the possibility of producing sputum that may be bloody or purulent. Cough is a key indicator for healthcare providers to suspect TB and order appropriate testing.


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Question 7: A client with TB is prescribed a combination of medications. What is the rationale for using multiple drugs to treat TB?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Using multiple drugs to treat TB is not primarily done to reduce the cost of treatment. While cost considerations are essential in healthcare, the main reason for employing multiple drugs is to prevent drug resistance and improve treatment outcomes.

Choice B rationale:

The rationale for using multiple drugs to treat TB is to minimize the risk of drug resistance. TB is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and the bacteria can develop resistance to single-drug treatments quite rapidly. Using a combination of drugs with different mechanisms of action makes it harder for the bacteria to become resistant to all drugs simultaneously, ensuring a more effective treatment.

Choice C rationale:

While using multiple drugs may help achieve a quicker cure, the primary reason for combining drugs in TB treatment is to prevent drug resistance. Faster cure is a secondary benefit, but the prevention of drug-resistant strains is of paramount importance in TB management.

Choice D rationale:

Avoiding potential drug interactions is an essential consideration in any medical treatment, but it is not the primary reason for using multiple drugs in TB treatment. The main focus is on preventing drug resistance and increasing treatment success.


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Question 8: A client with suspected TB is undergoing a skin test. The nurse measures the induration at the injection site and finds it to be 10 mm. What does this result indicate?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

A skin test result with an induration of 10 mm is considered positive in certain populations, indicating an active TB infection. These populations include people with known close contact with TB-infected individuals, HIV-positive individuals, recent immigrants from high-prevalence countries, and those with chest X-ray findings consistent with previous TB. The positive result means that the person has been exposed to the TB bacteria and has developed a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the purified protein derivative (PPD) injected during the skin test.

Choice B rationale:

A negative reaction, indicating no TB infection, would typically be a skin induration of less than 5 mm. In this case, with an induration of 10 mm, a negative reaction can be ruled out.

Choice C rationale:

An induration of 10 mm is not considered an inconclusive result. Inconclusive results are usually associated with very small indurations or circumstances where there is uncertainty about the interpretation of the test.

Choice D rationale:

A borderline reaction is not typically associated with TB testing. Borderline reactions are less specific and are not commonly used to interpret the results of TB skin tests.


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Question 9: A nurse is caring for a patient suspected of having tuberculosis (TB) What test is commonly used to detect TB infection and involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin into the forearm and measuring the induration after 48 to 72 hours?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The Interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA) is another test used to detect TB infection. It measures the release of interferon-gamma by T-cells in response to TB antigens. However, in this question, the specific test described involves injecting tuberculin into the forearm, which is the characteristic of the TST, not the IGRA.

Choice B rationale:

Chest x-ray is not a test used to detect TB infection directly. It is useful for identifying active pulmonary TB, but it does not detect latent TB infection, which is what the tuberculin skin test is designed for.

Choice C rationale:

Sputum smear microscopy is a test used to diagnose active TB by examining sputum samples for acid-fast bacilli. It is not used for detecting latent TB infection, as the tuberculin skin test does.

Choice D rationale:

The tuberculin skin test (TST), also known as the Mantoux test, involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin into the forearm and then measuring the induration (localized swelling and redness) at the injection site after 48 to 72 hours. A positive TST result indicates exposure to TB but does not distinguish between latent TB infection and active TB disease.


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Question 10: (Select all that apply): A nurse is educating a group of patients about preventing TB transmission. Which measures should the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply:

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Covering the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing is an essential measure to prevent the transmission of TB. TB is spread through airborne droplets, and covering the mouth and nose helps contain these droplets, reducing the risk of transmission to others.

Choice B rationale:

Using an N95 respirator mask is necessary when caring for patients with suspected or confirmed TB. N95 masks provide a high level of filtration and help protect healthcare workers and others from inhaling TB bacteria.

Choice C rationale:

Placing the patient in a negative pressure room is a measure used for patients with suspected or confirmed active TB disease. Negative pressure rooms help prevent the spread of infectious particles to the surrounding environment.

Choice D rationale:

Encouraging physical activity is not directly related to preventing TB transmission. While physical activity is beneficial for overall health, it does not play a significant role in preventing the transmission of TB.

Choice E rationale:

Washing hands frequently is an essential measure to prevent the transmission of TB and other infections. Proper hand hygiene reduces the risk of spreading bacteria from contaminated surfaces to the mouth, nose, or eyes.


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Question 11: A nurse is discussing the treatment of TB with a patient. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further education?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

"I should take my medications regularly and complete the full course of therapy" is a correct statement. TB treatment involves multiple drugs taken for an extended period, typically 6 to 9 months, to ensure complete eradication of the bacteria and prevent drug resistance.

Choice B rationale:

"I will report any adverse effects of the medications, such as skin rash or eye inflammation" is a correct statement. TB medications can have side effects, and it's crucial for the patient to report any adverse reactions to their healthcare provider for appropriate management.

Choice C rationale:

"I can stop taking the medications once I start feeling better" is an incorrect statement. TB treatment requires completing the full course of therapy, even if the patient's symptoms improve. Stopping treatment prematurely can lead to treatment failure and the development of drug-resistant TB.

Choice D rationale:

"I understand that the treatment may require surgery if there is extensive lung damage" is a correct statement. In some cases of TB, particularly if there is significant lung damage or complications, surgical intervention may be necessary.


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Question 12: A nurse is providing care to a patient with TB undergoing treatment. What nursing intervention is essential to monitor the patient's response to therapy and identify any complications?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

"Encouraging rest and avoiding physical activity." This intervention is not the essential one for monitoring the patient's response to TB treatment and identifying complications. While rest is important for recovery, it is not the primary method of monitoring treatment response.

Choice B rationale:

"Administering corticosteroids to prevent complications." Administering corticosteroids is not a standard intervention for all patients with TB undergoing treatment. Corticosteroids may be prescribed in specific cases, such as TB meningitis or pericarditis, to reduce inflammation, but it is not the essential nursing intervention for all TB patients.

Choice C rationale:

"Monitoring vital signs, sputum samples, and laboratory tests." This statement is correct. The essential nursing intervention for monitoring a patient's response to TB treatment and identifying complications is to regularly monitor vital signs, collect sputum samples to check for the presence of acid-fast bacilli (AFB), and conduct laboratory tests, such as complete blood count and liver function tests. These assessments help determine treatment effectiveness and detect any adverse reactions or complications.

Choice D rationale:

"Placing the patient in a negative pressure room." Placing the patient in a negative pressure room is not a nursing intervention for monitoring treatment response or identifying complications. Negative pressure rooms are used to prevent the spread of airborne infectious agents, but they are not directly related to treatment monitoring.


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Question 13: Which diagnostic test for TB infection is more specific than the tuberculin skin test (TST) and does not cross-react with other mycobacteria or the BCG vaccine?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

"Interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA)" This statement is correct. The Interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA) is more specific than the tuberculin skin test (TST) in detecting TB infection. It measures the release of interferon-gamma in response to TB antigens and does not cross-react with other mycobacteria or the BCG vaccine.

Choice B rationale:

"Sputum smear microscopy." Sputum smear microscopy is a diagnostic test used to identify acid-fast bacilli (AFB) in sputum samples. While it is essential for diagnosing active pulmonary TB, it is not more specific than the IGRA for detecting TB infection.

Choice C rationale:

"Chest x-ray." Chest X-ray is a valuable diagnostic tool to identify pulmonary abnormalities associated with TB infection, such as infiltrates and cavities. However, it is not more specific than the IGRA in detecting TB infection.

Choice D rationale:

"Sputum culture." Sputum culture is a gold standard diagnostic test for confirming active TB disease and identifying the specific strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. While it is highly sensitive and specific for diagnosing active TB, it is not more specific than the IGRA for detecting TB infection.


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Question 14: What is the primary goal of the nursing interventions for TB patients?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Providing emotional support and counseling is an important aspect of nursing care for TB patients. However, the primary goal of nursing interventions is to address the transmission of the disease and prevent its spread to others. TB is a highly contagious airborne disease, and healthcare professionals play a crucial role in implementing measures to reduce transmission.

Choice B rationale:

Monitoring the patient's weight and vital signs is essential for assessing the patient's response to treatment and overall health status. While these interventions are important, they are not the primary goal for TB patients. The main focus remains on preventing transmission and ensuring effective treatment.

Choice C rationale:

Preventing transmission of TB is the primary goal of nursing interventions. This involves implementing infection control measures, such as respiratory isolation, proper use of personal protective equipment, and education on cough etiquette for patients. By preventing the spread of TB, healthcare professionals contribute to public health efforts to control the disease.

Choice D rationale:

Administering antibiotic therapy is a critical aspect of TB treatment. However, it is not the primary goal of nursing interventions. Nursing interventions primarily focus on the prevention of transmission and supporting patients through their treatment journey.


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Question 15: (Select all that apply): A nurse is caring for a patient with TB. Which adjunctive measures may be required for this patient's treatment? Select all that apply:

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Surgery for extensive lung damage may be considered in very rare cases of complications from TB, but it is not an adjunctive measure commonly required for TB treatment. The primary treatment for TB involves antibiotic therapy and adjunctive measures to manage complications.

Choice B rationale:

Corticosteroids may be required as adjunctive therapy for pericarditis, a complication of TB that affects the lining around the heart. Corticosteroids help reduce inflammation and improve the patient's condition.

Choice C rationale:

Nutritional support is often necessary for patients with TB, as the disease can lead to malnutrition and weight loss. Adequate nutrition is crucial for supporting the immune system and facilitating recovery.

Choice D rationale:

Fluid therapy may be required for patients with TB who experience dehydration due to fever, night sweats, and reduced oral intake. Proper hydration helps maintain organ function and aids in the elimination of waste products.

Choice E rationale:

Pain management is essential for patients with TB, especially for those experiencing chest pain, which can be a symptom of the disease or a complication. Adequate pain control improves the patient's comfort and compliance with treatment.


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Question 16: A nurse is discussing the prevention of tuberculosis (TB) Which individual-level strategy involves administering the BCG vaccine to infants or children at high risk of TB exposure or infection?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Chemoprophylaxis involves using medications to prevent TB infection or its progression in individuals at high risk of exposure. While it is an important strategy, it is not specifically related to administering the BCG vaccine.

Choice B rationale:

Screening for TB involves identifying individuals who are at risk of infection or have active disease through various tests such as tuberculin skin tests and chest X-rays. Although screening is a crucial aspect of TB control, it is not the strategy involving BCG vaccine administration.

Choice C rationale:

Vaccination with the BCG vaccine is an individual-level strategy aimed at providing protection against TB, particularly in infants or children at high risk of TB exposure or infection. The BCG vaccine does not provide complete protection against TB but has been shown to reduce the risk of severe forms of the disease, such as TB meningitis and miliary TB, in children.

Choice D rationale:

Surveillance involves monitoring the incidence and prevalence of TB at the population level. It does not directly involve administering the BCG vaccine to individuals at risk.


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Question 17: A client is diagnosed with latent TB infection (LTBI) What is the most appropriate intervention for this client? Select all that apply:

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The most appropriate intervention for a client diagnosed with latent TB infection (LTBI) is observation for disease progression. Latent TB infection means that the individual has been infected with the tuberculosis bacteria but does not currently have active TB disease. In cases of LTBI, the bacteria are in a dormant state, and the person does not show any symptoms. The standard approach for LTBI management is to monitor the individual closely for any signs of disease progression. This may involve regular clinical assessments and follow-ups to detect the development of active TB. Initiating treatment (such as INH administration) is not recommended for all individuals with LTBI, as not everyone with latent infection will progress to active disease. The decision to treat depends on the individual's risk factors, clinical presentation, and other considerations. Selecting choice B (Sputum smear microscopy) is not appropriate for LTBI since this test is used to diagnose active TB disease, not latent infection. Choice C (Tuberculin skin test, TST) is used to identify individuals with LTBI, not as an intervention for those already diagnosed with LTBI. Choice D (INH administration) may be a treatment option for certain individuals with LTBI, but it is not the most appropriate intervention for all LTBI cases. Choice E (Contact tracing) is a strategy to identify and screen individuals who may have been exposed to active TB cases, not a direct intervention for LTBI management.


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Question 18: A nurse is providing education to a group of individuals who will receive the BCG vaccine. Which statement indicates the need for further teaching?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Choice C indicates the need for further teaching because it contains inaccurate information. The BCG vaccine, which is used to prevent severe forms of tuberculosis in high-risk populations, can cause false-positive reactions to the Tuberculin Skin Test (TST) The TST is a common test used to detect exposure to TB, but it cannot differentiate between a previous BCG vaccination and an actual TB infection. The presence of a BCG scar or previous vaccination can lead to a positive TST without an active TB infection. Choices A and B are correct statements. The BCG vaccine does provide some protection against severe forms of TB and pulmonary TB. Choice D is also accurate; the BCG vaccine is administered intramuscularly.


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Question 19:

A client with latent TB infection (LTBI) is prescribed chemoprophylaxis. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the treatment regimen?

Explanation

Choice B rationale:

Choice B reflects an understanding of the treatment regimen for latent TB infection (LTBI) Chemoprophylaxis is the treatment of choice for LTBI to prevent the development of active TB disease. The most common medication used for chemoprophylaxis is isoniazid (INH) While taking the medication, it is essential for the client to monitor for any adverse effects that may occur, such as hepatotoxicity. Regular follow-ups and liver function tests may be necessary during treatment. Additionally, monitoring for drug resistance is crucial to ensure that the medication remains effective in preventing active TB. Choices A and D are incorrect statements. Chemoprophylaxis requires taking the medication for an extended period, usually six to nine months, not just a few days. Choice C is also incorrect; chemoprophylaxis is often recommended for close contacts of active TB cases to prevent the progression to active disease. Choice C seems to confuse chemoprophylaxis (preventing progression from LTBI to active TB) with post-exposure prophylaxis (given to prevent initial infection after exposure to active TB)


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Question 20: A nurse is explaining directly observed therapy (DOT) to a client with active TB disease. What is the purpose of DOT?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Directly observed therapy (DOT) is a treatment strategy used for clients with active tuberculosis (TB) disease. The purpose of DOT is to ensure that the client takes their TB medications as prescribed, under direct observation by a healthcare provider or trained healthcare worker. By directly observing the medication administration, DOT helps to ensure medication adherence, which is crucial in preventing the development of drug-resistant TB strains. It also reduces the risk of treatment failure, relapse of the disease, and transmission of TB to others. By closely monitoring the client's adherence to the treatment regimen, healthcare providers can intervene promptly if any issues arise during the course of treatment.

Choice B rationale:

Facilitating early diagnosis and treatment is an essential aspect of TB control; however, this is not the primary purpose of directly observed therapy (DOT) Early diagnosis helps to identify and initiate appropriate treatment promptly, but DOT is specifically implemented to monitor and enhance adherence during the course of treatment, particularly for those at risk of non-compliance.

Choice C rationale:

Evaluating the impact and effectiveness of TB control programs is an important public health measure, but it is not the direct purpose of DOT. DOT mainly focuses on individual client treatment adherence rather than assessing overall program effectiveness.

Choice D rationale:

Identifying and testing persons who have been in close contact with active TB cases is part of contact tracing and TB screening efforts, which are separate from the purpose of directly observed therapy (DOT) DOT is centered on the supervision of treatment for clients already diagnosed with active TB disease.


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Question 21: Which population group is at higher risk of developing tuberculosis (TB)?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Young adults between 20 to 30 years of age are at a higher risk of developing tuberculosis (TB) compared to other age groups. This age range often includes individuals who may be exposed to TB in various settings, such as college or university students, individuals in the workforce, and those who may engage in behaviors that increase the risk of TB transmission, such as socializing in crowded places.

Choice B rationale:

Children under the age of 5 are also considered a high-risk group for TB, especially in regions with a high prevalence of the disease. However, in many settings, young adults between 20 to 30 years of age have shown higher rates of TB infection and disease compared to young children.

Choice C rationale:

Elderly individuals over the age of 65 are generally considered at higher risk for developing severe complications from TB, but their risk of primary TB infection is lower compared to younger age groups, including young adults between 20 to 30 years of age.

Choice D rationale:

Pregnant women, like the elderly, are at higher risk of severe complications if they develop TB during pregnancy. However, the incidence of TB is generally lower in pregnant women compared to young adults between 20 to 30 years of age, who are more socially active and likely to encounter TB-exposed individuals.


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Question 22: Which region had the highest burden of TB according to the World Health Organization (WHO) report in 2020?

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Europe does report cases of TB, but it does not carry the highest burden of TB according to the World Health Organization (WHO) report in 2020. TB prevalence in Europe is generally lower compared to some other regions.

Choice B rationale:

Africa is the region that had the highest burden of TB according to the WHO report in 2020. The African region has been heavily affected by TB, with a significant number of cases and a high incidence rate of the disease. This is attributed to various factors, including limited access to healthcare, poverty, overcrowded living conditions, and a high prevalence of HIV/AIDS, which weakens the immune system and increases the risk of TB infection.

Choice C rationale:

North America has a lower TB burden compared to Africa, although TB cases are still reported in the region. The incidence of TB in North America is generally lower due to better healthcare infrastructure, access to treatment, and TB control programs.

Choice D rationale:

South America, like North America, has a lower TB burden compared to Africa. However, some countries in South America still experience a significant number of TB cases, particularly in areas with limited access to healthcare and socioeconomic challenges. Nonetheless, Africa remains the region with the highest TB burden according to the WHO report.


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Question 23: Select the correct statements regarding drug-resistant TB. Select all that apply:

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

MDR-TB stands for multidrug-resistant tuberculosis, and it is resistant to at least two of the most potent first-line anti-TB drugs, isoniazid (INH), and rifampicin (RIF) This resistance makes the treatment of MDR-TB more challenging and requires the use of second-line drugs.

Choice B rationale:

XDR-TB stands for extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis, and it is resistant to all first-line anti-TB drugs (INH and RIF) and at least one of the second-line injectable drugs (e.g., amikacin, kanamycin, or capreomycin) XDR-TB is even more challenging to treat than MDR-TB and requires the use of third-line drugs.

Choice C rationale:

RR-TB refers to rifampicin-resistant tuberculosis. It is resistant to rifampicin alone or in combination with other drugs but still susceptible to isoniazid. Rifampicin resistance is a critical indicator for diagnosing MDR-TB.

Choice D rationale:

This statement is incorrect. Drug-resistant TB is not more common in infants and children. It can affect individuals of any age, especially those who have received inadequate or inappropriate treatment for TB, leading to the development of drug resistance.

Choice E rationale:

This statement is correct. Drug-resistant TB requires more prolonged treatment compared to drug-sensitive TB. Treatment for drug-resistant TB can take months to years and often involves a combination of second and third-line drugs, which may have more side effects and require careful monitoring.

Hepatitis.

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