Postpartum Management

Postpartum Management ( 5 Questions)

A nurse is teaching a client who has postpartum pre-eclampsia about the potential effects of this condition on future pregnancies.

Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?



Correct Answer: D

“I will have a higher risk of having pre-eclampsia or eclampsia in my next pregnancy.” This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because postpartum pre-eclampsia is a rare condition that occurs when you have high blood pressure and excess protein in your urine soon after childbirth. It increases the risk of developing preeclampsia or gestational hypertension in subsequent pregnancies. Preeclampsia is a serious condition of high blood pressure during pregnancy that can cause complications for the mother and the baby.

Choice A is wrong because aspirin is not a treatment for postpartum pre-eclampsia, but a preventive measure for preeclampsia during pregnancy in women who are at high risk for it. Aspirin may reduce the risk of preeclampsia and related complications by inhibiting platelet aggregation and inflammation. However, aspirin may not work for women with chronic hypertension.

Choice B is wrong because postpartum pre-eclampsia does not affect the risk of developing gestational diabetes in the next pregnancy.

Gestational diabetes is a condition where the blood sugar level becomes too high during pregnancy due to hormonal changes and insulin resistance.

The risk factors for gestational diabetes include obesity, family history of diabetes, previous history of gestational diabetes, polycystic ovary syndrome, and certain ethnic groups.

Choice C is wrong because postpartum pre-eclampsia does not require a cesarean delivery for the next pregnancy.

Cesarean delivery is a surgical procedure




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